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Balbharati solutions, for, Social Science, History, and, Civics, 10th, Standard, SSC, Maharashtra, State, Board, chapter 4, Social, and, Political Movements, Latest edition,

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 96

Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentence. 

____________ is the main demand of farmers movement. 

Right to cultivate on the forest land 

To get the right price for agricultural product 

Protection of consumers 

Building of dams

SOLUTION

To get the right price for agricultural product


To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ____________ was initiated. 

Water revolution 

Green revolution 

Industrial revolution 

White revolution

SOLUTION

Green revolution


Exercise | Q 1 | Page 96

Write note on : 

Tribal movement

SOLUTION

The origin of Tribal movement dates back to the pre-independence days. The British government had deprived tribal people of their rights to livelihood on forest resources and as a result of that, a tribal uprising took place in various parts of the country. It included tribes like Kolam (Chota Nagpur), Gond (Orissa), Koli Bhilla Ramoshi (Maharashtra), Santhal and Munda (Bihar).

The main demand of the tribal movement is for the government to accept their rights over forests, they should be allowed to collect forest produce and cultivate forest land.


Workers movement

SOLUTION

Workers movement in India was organized under Trade unions that saw its birth in the background of industrialization in British India.

Industrial workers frequently went on strike for their demands of better wages and improved working hours.

One such incident was reported as the railway workers’ strike in 1899.

The first organization for resolving workers’ issues was established in 1920, known as the All India Trade Union Congress.

In the post-independence era, trade unions got more effective in 1960s and 1970s, organizing several agitations but saw its disintegration in 1980s and its steady decline in the face of globalization in 1990s. Some of the concerns of the workers’ movements are:

• Unstable employment conditions

• Contract labour and financial insecurities of workers

• Absence of legal protection for workers

• Long working hours

• Insecurities at workplace

• Health hazards at work place, etc.


Answer the following question in brief. 

Explain the activities/role/functions  of environmental movement.

SOLUTION

The environmental movement is an important step towards environmental protection which is recognized as a global concern. Its working is organized on several levels (local, national, international) to prevent environmental degradation. It aims to create awareness and drive policy making on issues like sustainable energy, protection of forest and biodiversity, severe effects of pollution and degradation of air, water, soil etc.


Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.

SOLUTION

The history of farmers’ movement in India dates to the time of our independence struggle. It was inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi against the anti-agriculturist policies of the British. It has continued to be active and became more effective after the Green Revolution which increased the economic gap between rich farmers and poor farmers. Some of the demands of the farmers’ movements are:

• Appropriate prices for agricultural goods

• Industry status for Agriculture

• Implementations of the recommendations of the Swaminathan Commission report

• Debt relief and debt cancellation

• National policy for Agriculture


For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?

SOLUTION

The women’s movements in the pre-independence period were fighting for eliminating injustice and exploitation against women, helping them lead a respectful and socially active life. Some of the reforms it demanded were:

• Widow re-marriage

• Women education

• Right to vote

After Independence, women were granted equal political rights by the constitution, however, the social struggle for equality continued.


Explain the following statement by giving reason. 

Movements are important in a democracy.

SOLUTION

Movements are important in a democracy because:

1. Different social problems are discussed through these movements.

2. It is a way of attracting the attention of Government towards a cause.

3. The Government & common people get more necessary information about the issues through leaders and activists.

4. It helps the government take an informed decision on the subject.

5. Right to protest is an important democratic right, hence social movements strengthen democratic processes.


Movements do not need a strong leadership.

SOLUTION

Movements need a strong leadership to keep it active and effective. A Movement is a collective struggle, people need a strong leader for right guidance to reach their objective.

For instance, India’s freedom struggle was marked with emergence of a strong political leadership in the twentieth century (1900s), prior to that the independence efforts were scattered in regions and divided in their political stances. It found a direction in non-violence and political non-cooperation under the leadership of Gandhi. While multiple groups continued to fight for India’s freedom in their respective ways, the common masses found their aspirations aligned with the Gandhian movement for his charismatic leadership.


Consumer movement came into existence.

SOLUTION

The consumer movement came into existence in 1986 with the Consumer Protection Act to address cases of frauds in the economic exchanges. It takes each citizen to be a consumer and has a broader objective is to protect the consumer against adulteration and frauds, understanding the changing nature of consumer grievances.

The Consumer Protection Act proved its importance with the economic liberalization of India in 1990s. The consumer forums proved to be a good system of check and balance into quality control and after sales services in the market place.


Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.

SOLUTION

In my city, Jodhpur, currently the initiative has been taken by the people to clean in area (Madhuban) by making arrangements to dump the waste rather than throwing it in the corners of the road.

REPORT ON CREATING ARRANGEMENTS FOR DUMPING WASTE

Recently when I visited my town, I found out that to resolve the general problem of dumping waste, the people are taking initiative in various ways. As the situation in this area was worsening, some people took the initiative to solve this problem.

In Madhuban, People were dumping waste in their nearby corners as the dustbins were already filled. Municipal people didn’t bother to clean up the area at least once on an alternate day depending upon the availability of dustbins provided in the location. Hardly, there was proper facility provided to dump the waste. People had to go to the other areas to dump waste as there were not enough dustbins provided.

There were some people who took initiative firstly by complaining to the Municipal Corporation to provide a required number of dustbins in Madhuban (at least in every colony). Some people started to travel with their own carrier tempo with a song playing with lyrics “Sunlo bhaiya sunlo bhabhi sunlo bhaiyaji, kachre waale dabbe me tum Kachra daalo ji”. They go to every colony with this temp and charge 50 Rs a month for this. They also take waste bags kept outside the houses and charge extra 10 Rs for this otherwise the individual has to dump waste on his own when the tempo comes outside the home.


Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains.

SOLUTION

CASE: Miss Devika Pillai purchased Grains from Mr. Pankaj & Co. operating in the same town, in January 2019. The grains purchased contained chemicals and colours to make it look more shiny and fresh. As a result, Miss Devika Pillai approaches the District forum.

COMPLAINT PETITION

For being cheated in the purchase of grains

BEFORE THE DISTRICT FORUM CONSUMER DISPUTES REDRESSAL FORUM, <JODHPUR>

Consumer dispute case no. 1234/2019

A petition under Section-11 Consumer Protection Act

And in the matter of :

Miss Devika Pillai

3 GHA 22 Madhuban, Basni, 1st phase, Jodhpur (Raj.)

Vs

Owner of the Shop

Mr. Pankaj & Co.

3B12, Chopasini Housing Board, Jodhpur.

To,

Hon’ble President and

Members of the District Forum

Jodhpur

May it please your honours:

This complaint petition is being filed on behalf of Miss Devika Pillai 3 GHA 22 Madhuban, Basni, 1st phase, Jodhpur (Raj.) referred hereafter as Complainant, and is as follows :

1.0 That this complaint Petition is being filed under Sec.

2 (1)(b)(i) of the Consumer Protection Act.

2.0 That the opposite party is engaged in the business of selling vegetables and grains in the known markets, apart from other activities.

(Narration of the Incident)

3.1 That on 5th January. 2019 (date of purchasing grains), the complainant deposited a sum of Rs 1 lakh to purchase 40 kg of Grains and the receipt (receipt no. -228) has been provided for this. A Photocopy of the said receipt is furnished at Annexure-I.

3.2 After knowing about being cheated, when the complainant approached the shopkeeper, he initially refused to talk on this matter and later denied of such act done by him. Hence, the complainant wrote to the shopkeeper, requesting to take an immediate intervention. Copy of the letter has been furnished at Annexure – II.

3.3 As a result, till date O.P No. 1 did not bother to honour the directives of a complainant, and the complainant is still didn’t receive his money back.

3.4 That the O.P had tried to sell grains which are unhealthy to consume by the complainant.

PRAYER

In the view of the submissions contained in the preceding paragraphs, the complainant most respectfully prays to the Hon’ble Forum to direct the Opposite Parties to:

(a) refund the cost of the purchased grain, Rs. <1 lakh> along with 10% interest;

(b) to pay a sum of Rs. 10,000/- towards the physical strain and mental agony suffered by the complainant and his family members (compensation); and

(c) to pay a sum of Rs. 1,000/- towards cost of this petition (Cost);

For which act of kindness, the complainant shall, as is duty bound, ever pray

Devika Pillai


Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 10, Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu,

Question 1.
…………….. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C. W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
…………… established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 3.
…………….. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ………………
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………….. founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ………….
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 9, Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu,

Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurty
(b) Kastunrangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurty

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. ………………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
  2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ………………… through his writings.
  3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named …………………
  4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by …………………
  5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by …………………
  6. ………………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
  7. ………………… was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
  8. ………………… hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.

Answers:

  1. T. Muthuswami
  2. G. Subramaniam
  3. Bharata Matha Society
  4. B.P.Wadia
  5. C. Natesanar
  6. C. Rajaji
  7. Yakub Hasan
  8. Bashyam

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct


Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct


Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.


Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.


Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 8, Gandhian Phase,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was arrested during the anti*Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew

Question 2.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Nagpur

Question 3.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(a) 26th January 1930

Question 4.
When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 7, Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 6, Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu.

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 5, Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century,

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 4, The World after World War II.

Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Tamilnadu, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Solutions, History, Chapter 3, World War II,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
Answer:
(a) 2 September, 1945

Question 2.
Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein
Answer:
(b) Battle of Midway

Question 4.
Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
Answer:
(c) Hiroshima

Question 5.

Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?

(a) Russians

(b) Arabs

(c) Turks

(d) Jews

Answer:

(d) Jews

Question 6.

Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?

(a) Chamberlain

(b) Winston Churchill

(c) Lloyd George

(d) Stanley Baldwin

Answer:

(a) Chamberlain

Question 7.

When was the Charter of the UN signed?

(a) June 26, 1942

(b) June 26, 1945

(c) January 1, 1942

(d) January 1, 1945

Answer:

(b) June 26, 1945

Question 8.

Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?

(a) New York

(b) Chicago

(c) London

(d) The Hague

Answer:

(d) The Hague


II. Fill in the blanks

Hitler attacked ……………… which was a demilitarized zone.

The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ………………

……………… started the Lend-Lease programme.

Britain Prime Minister ……………… resigned in 1940.

Saluting the bravery of the ……………… Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many to so few”.

……………… is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in ……………… articles.

After the World War II ……………… was voted into power in Great Britain.

Answers:

Rhineland

Rome – Berlin

Roosevelt

Chamberlain

Royal Air force

Radar

30

Labour party


III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

(i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.

(ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.

(iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.

(iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct

(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are wrong

Answer:

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.

Assertion (A): President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.

Reason (R): He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.

(a) Both A and R are correct

(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

(c) Both A and R are wrong

(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

Answer:

(a) Both A and R are correct


IV. Match the Following

Answers:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (ii)

E. (iii)


V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.

Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.

Answer:

Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.

Germany had to be disarmed and was allowed to retain only a very restricted army, navy and air force.

Germany was expected to pay huge military and civilian cost of the war to the allied nations (approx. $ 25 billion).

Question 2.

Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?

Answer:

The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 3.

How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?

Answer:

Hitler was able to sway away the emotions of the German people by his great speeches. He promised them that he will return back the glorious Germany. His racial superiority of the Germans as a pure Aryan race and a deep-rooted hatred for jews made him get the support of his people

Question 4.

Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.

Answer:

Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed. The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 5.

What do you know of Beveridge Report?

Answer:

The Report that was published in the United Kingdom in 1942 to improve the general welfare of the people is called as Beveridge Report. It proposed that the government should provide citizens with adequate income, healthcare, education housing and employment to overcome poverty and disease thereby improve general welfare

Question 6.

Name the Bretton Woods Twins.

Answer:

The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

Question 7.

What are the objectives of the IMF?

Answer:

To foster global monetary co-operation

To secure Financial Stability

To facilitate International Trade

To promote high employment and sustainable economic growth.

To reduce poverty around the world.


VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.

Battle of Stalingrad

(a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?

Answer:

In August 1942, Germany attacked Stalingrad.

(b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?

Answer:

The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.

(c) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?

Answer:

Fall Blau or Operation Blue

(d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?

Answer:

The people of Russia were grateful for Stalin’s conduct of the war. They regarded him as ‘a prodigy of patience, tenacity and vigilance, almost omnipresent, almost omniscient.

Question 2.

Japanese Aggression In South-east Asia

(a) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.

Answer:

Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies and the Burma all fell to the Japanese.

(b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?

Answer:

The Allies had a setback in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparation. The local people had to face the atrocities of the Japanese.

(c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?

Answer:

The U.S. navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway. Thus, the battle is in favour of the Allies.

(d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?

Answer:

The Indians living in Burma walked all the way to the Indian border facing many hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion.

Question 3.

General Assembly and Security Council

(a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.

Answer:

The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.

(b) What is the Holocaust?

Answer:

The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.

(c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?

Answer:

The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.

(d) What is meant by veto?

Answer:

A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.


VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.

Answer:

Adolf Hitler Was the founder of the National Socialist party, generally known as the Nazi party.

His great oratorical skill, his promise to bring back the glorious past of Germany, his support for the German race and hatred towards the Jews helped him to get people support.

He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.

He began to re-arm Germany and recruitment of new armed forces.

The manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force with large spending from government resulted in the revival of the economic condition and helped to solve the unemployment problem in the economy.

He followed aggressive policy and therefore in 1936, he invaded Rhine land, the demilitarized zone.

His alliance with Italy and Japan became Rome-Berlin-Tokyo axis.

He signed Munich pact stating Germany would not conquer any other territory, rather in 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.

His attack on Poland resulted in the declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany.

In 1941, German army invaded Russia. But the resistance of the German army and Russian winter defeated German army.

When the allied forces fought back, Germany also retaliated. Finally, Hitler committed suicide in 1945.

In 1945, allies occupied Berlin and Germany was divided as two sections after the war.


Question 2.

Analyse the effects of World War II.

Answer:

World War II was the most devastating war in history. It left a deep impact on the entire world. It changed the world in fundamental ways. Here are the effects of this War:

(i) The world got polarised into two main blocs led by superpowers, one led by the United States which followed anti-communist ideology, and the other by Soviet Russia which was essentially communist in nature. Europe was thus divided into two: Communist and non-communist.

(ii) The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear powered World War II 43 weapons. They built a large stockpile of such weapons. Meanwhile, Britain and France developed their own nuclear weapons.

(iii) Gradually there arose competition among countries. They began to devote large amount of resources in developing more and more powerful weapons with great destructive power, and defence spending skyrocketed in many countries.

(iv) It was realised that the League of Nations was ineffective and weak. So countries of the world decided not to repeat the mistake. Instead, many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large and small.

(v) Many other important social and economic changes also took place in the post-War world. Colonial powers were forced to give independence to former colonies in a process of decolonisation. India was the first country to get independence.

(vi) Women became the part of labour force in huge numbers. They became economically independent.


Question 3.

Assess the structure and activities of the UN.

Answer:

The charter of the United Nations was signed on June 26, 1945 by 51 nations. Now, the United Nations has 193 member states and each one has an equal vote in the UN.

Structure of UN:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 3 World War II 2

The General Assembly: Meets once in a year. Issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.

The Security Council: Consist of five permanent members (USA, Britain, France, Russia, China) and ten non-permanent members (elected in rotation). Each permanent member has the right to veto (A right to reject a decision).

UN Secretariat: Headed by the Secretary by law General. He is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. He, with his cabinet and officials run the UN.

International Court of Justice: Headquarters at the Hague in Holland.

The Economic and the Social Council: Co-ordinates all the social and economic work of the U.N. Headed by economists like Gunnar Myrdal.

Activities of the UN:

Human Rights, Refugees problem, climatic change, gender equality are the important issues taken over and deals with it. Earlier in 1960’s decolonisation was also a part of their activity.

UN peace keeping force acted in many areas of conflict all over the World. Indian army has been a part of it.

The preamble of the UN declares, its activities include human rights, equality of men and women.


VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.

A debate in the class on the success or failure of the UN in preserving World Peace.

Answer:

The students can take the following topics for debate and finally conclude, UN is successful as it has stopped the nations from bringing another war. Small to big clashes were/are handled by UN efficiently.

Argument for:

The topics of discussion for debate are:

Solving International conflicts: Since 1945, UN peacekeepers have undertaken over 60 field missions and negotiated 172 peaceful settlements that ended Regional conflicts.

Liberation from Colonial rule: Eighty nations and more than 750 million people have been freed from colonialism.

Human Rights: Custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, Children’s rights, torture, missing persons etc. in many countries.

Enhancing Human life: Specialised agencies of the UN engaged in enhancing all aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, climate change.

Treaties: More than 560 multilateral treaties on human rights, refugees, disarmament.

Argument against:

Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT): Signed by 190 nations, all live superpowers owned nuclear weapons. Later, several countries North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India developed nuclear weapons.

Veto Power: Veto power has limited its effectiveness at critical times.

War Criminals: The International criminal court has prosecuted several war criminals. But it has been criticised for prosecuting only African leaders. But Western powers too have committed war crimes.

Israel Attack: Israel attacked homes schools, U.N. shelters in Gaza killing 2,200 Palestinians. The U.N. Security Council has failed any action against Israel.

Conclusion: U.N. is imperfect but it is also indispensable. It is successful as, it is avoiding any other war.

Question 3.

Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in a world map.

1. Axis Power Countries

2. Allied Power Countries

3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawai Island, Moscow, San Fransico

Answer:


Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, History, Book, Solutions, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Guide, Geography, Chapter 7, Human Geography of Tamil Nadu,

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta


Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets


Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%


Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur


Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
  2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
  3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
  4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
  5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

  1. 21%
  2. Then Pennai
  3. second
  4. Chennai
  5. balance of trade

III. Match the following


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 1
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)


IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

  1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
  2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
  3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
  4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
  5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
  6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
  7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
  8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
  9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.


VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

  1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
  2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
  3. Large mechanised boats are used.
  4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

  1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
  2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
  3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
  4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

  1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
  2. From the major source of regular diet.
  3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

  1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
  2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
  3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water
:

  1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
  2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
  3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
  4. Not reliable
  5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

  1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
  2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
  3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
  4. Reliable sources of water.
  5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:

To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:

Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:

During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.


VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

  • Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
  • Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
  • Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
  • Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
  • The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
  • It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
  • Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
  • Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
  • Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
  • Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
  • Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
  • Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

  1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
  2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
  3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
  4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
    Tiruvallur – 1049
    Kancheepuram – 927
    Madurai – 823
    Coimbatore – 748
    Cuddalore – 702
    Thanjavur – 691
    Nagapattinam – 668
    Salem – 663
    Vellore – 646
    Tiruchirappalli – 602
    These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

Road ways:

  1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
  2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

  1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
  2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
  3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
  4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

  1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
  2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
  3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

  1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
  2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

  1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
  2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
  3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
  4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
  5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

  • Aware of the road signals
  • Stop, look and cross
  • Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
  • Don’t rush on roads
  • Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
  • Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
  • Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

  1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
  2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
  3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
  4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
  5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
  6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
  7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 4

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.


(c) Dams:


(d) Seaports and airports:


I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
  2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
  3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
  4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
  5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
  6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
  7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
  8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
  9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
  10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
  11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
  12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
  13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
  14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
  15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
  16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
  17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
  18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
  19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
  20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
  21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
  22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
  23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
  24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
  25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
  26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
  27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
  28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
  29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
  30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
  31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
  32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
  33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
  34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
  35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
  36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
  37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
  38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
  39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
  40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

  1. human beings
  2. Agriculture
  3. North-East monsoon
  4. Navarai
  5. 2023
  6. Aavin
  7. goat rearing
  8. off-shore fishing
  9. little – Brindavan
  10. Ottanchatram
  11. 900
  12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
  13. Industries
  14. Ramanathapuram
  15. Vellore
  16. 37
  17. Kagithapuram
  18. Temple Jewellery
  19. mats
  20. Tamil Nadu
  21. 35%
  22. handloom sector
  23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
  24. Population
  25. Moderate
  26. The Nilgiri
  27. Sex – Ration
  28. Port
  29. Madurai to Nattham
  30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
  31. Chief Minister
  32. reduction of risks
  33. Ore
  34. Literates
  35. Reservoirs
  36. Demography
  37. Demographers
  38. Over population
  39. Sheep
  40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 9
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)


IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.

Answer:


Farming Type:

  1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
  2. Plantation agriculture
  3. Mixed farming

Regions:

  1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
  2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
  3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

  1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
  2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

  1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
  2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

  • Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
  • Cotton thrives well in black soil.
  • It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
  • It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

  1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
  2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
  3. It promotes export earnings.
  4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

  1. A tradition industry.
  2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
  3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

  1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
  2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.


VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

  1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
  2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
  3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

  1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
  2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
  3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

  1. Mostly food crops are grown.
  2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
  3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
  4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

  1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
  2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
  3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
  4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

  1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
  2. Local currency is involved.
  3. Improves the internal economy.
  4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

  1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
  2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
  3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
  4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

  1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
  2. It may be natural or artificial.
  3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

  1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
  2. It is man made feature.
  3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

  1. Communication is only between two persons.
  2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
  3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

  1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
  2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
  3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

  1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
  2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

  1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
  2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
  3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

  1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
  2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
  3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

  1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
  2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.


VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:

Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

  1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
  2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

  • Accident
  • Negligence or
  • Incompetence
  • Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

  • Overheating
  • Aging of materials
  • Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

  • Explosions
  • Leaking of poisonous gases
  • Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

  • Creating awareness
  • Promoting organic fertilizers
  • Training
  • Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

  • agro-waste compost production units.
  • bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
  • development and implementation of quality control regime.
  • human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:

The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

  1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
  2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
  3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
  4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil
Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
  2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
  3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
  4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
  5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
  6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
  7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
  8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 13
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 14
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 15

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