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Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, sslc, Science, Solutions, Chapter 15 Nervous System, tamilnadu board, biology,

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in _______
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Question 2.
Site for processing of vision, hearing,memory, speech, intelligence and thought is:
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by _______
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord

Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ……cell body and axon transmit impulse …….. cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is ______
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

Question 6.
There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves and ______ pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre:
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Question 9.
Node of Ranvier is found in ______
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in:
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess _______
(a) neurilemma
(b) sarcolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sarcolemma

Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ is the longest cell in our body.
Answer:
Axon

Question 2.
Impulses travels rapidly in ______ neurons.
Answer:
Myelin sheath of

Question 3.
A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ______
Answer:
reactions or responses

Question 4.
_____ carries the impulse towards the cell body.
Answer:
Dendrites

Question 5.
The two antagonistic components of the autonomic nervous system are _____ and ______
Answer:
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic

Question 6.
A neuron contains all cell organelles except _______
Answer:
Golgi apparatus in axon

Question 7.
_____ maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
Answer:
Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 8.
______ and ______ increases the surface area of cerebrum.
Answer:
Gyri and Sulci

Question 9.
The part of the human brain which acts as a relay centre is _______
Answer:
Thalamus

III. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement.

Question 1.
Dendrons are the longest fibres that conduct impulses away from the cell body.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: Axons are the longest fibres that conduct impulses away from the cell body.

Question 2.
The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the central nervous system.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: Sympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 3.
Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of the human body.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the white matter.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: In the central nervous system, two types of matter such as white matter or grey matter, is formed, with respect to the presence or absence of myelin sheath.

Question 6.
All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The brain is covered by three connective tissue membrane or meninges.

Question 7.
Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Pons helps in regulating respiration.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Nissil’s granules(a) Forebrain
2. Hypothalamus(b) Peripheral Nervous system
3. Cerebellum(c) Cyton
4. Schwann cell(d) Hindbrain

Answer:
1. (c) Cyton
2. (a) Forebrain
3. (d) Hindbrain
4. (b) Peripheral Nervous system

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice.

(a). Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
(b). Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c). Both assertion and reason are correct
(d). Both assertion and reason are wrong

Question 1.
Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong

Question 2.
Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the dura mater and pia mater. Reason: It serves to maintain constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition, that are detected by receptors present in the body are called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hind brain.
Answer:
Hind brain consists of cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of the brain?
Answer:
The brain is covered by three connective tissue membrane or meninges.

  • Dura mater, which is the outermost thick fibrous membrane.
  • Arachnoid membrane, which is the middle thin vascular membrane providing a web-like cushion.
  • Pia mater, which is the innermost, thin delicate membrane richly supplied with blood. Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Common examples of conditioned reflexes are playing a musical instrument, tying shoelaces or the neck-tie without being attentive, watering of the mouth after seeing or smelling favourite food.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and the endocrine system?
Answer:
The hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormones from the Anterior Pituitary gland and is an important link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path along which the reflexive impulse travel is called reflex arc.
(OR)
The path way taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:

Voluntary ActionInvoluntary Action
1. The actions which are under the control of our will, eg. Eating, walking.1. The actions, which are not under our control, eg. Breathing, Heartbeat
2. Controlled by the brain.2. Controlled by the spinal cord.
3. Voluntary Action results in muscular action.3. Involuntary actions result in a muscular action or secretions of some glands.

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:

Medullated nerve fibreNon-medullated nerve fibre
1. Nerve fibre is covered by a protective sheath, called the Myelin sheath, which is covered by Neurilemma.1. Nerve fibre is covered by a single sheath, Neurilemma.
2. Nodes of Ranvier are present.2. Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
3. They appear white.3. They appear grey.
4. They carry nerve impulses, much faster than non-medullated nerve fibre.4. They carry nerve impulses, much slower than medullated nerve fibre.
5. They are present in the white matter of brain, spinal cord and in the cranial and spinal nerves.5. They are present in the grey matter of the brain and spinal cord and in the autonomic nerves.

VIII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron
Answer:
Structure of Neuron: A neuron consists of three basic parts namely Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.

(a) Cyton: Cyton is called cell body or perikaryon. It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has a large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum. Neurons do not have the ability to divide. Several neurofibrils are present in the cytoplasm that help in the transmission of nerve impulses to and from the cell body.

(b) Dendrites: These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes, that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses, towards the cyton. The branched projections increase the surface area for receiving the signals from other nerve cells.

(c) Axon: The axon is a single, elongated, slender projections. The end of axon terminates as fine branches, which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob.

The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protein sheath called myelin sheath, which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called neurilemma.

Myelin sheath breaks at intervals, by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called an internode. Myelin sheath acts as an insulator and ensures the rapid transmission of nerve impulses.
A junction between synaptic knob of the axon of one neuron and dendron of next neuron is called Synaptic Junction. Information from one neuron can pass to another neuron through these junctions, with the release of chemicals known as neurotransmitters, from the synaptic knob.

Question 2.
Illustrate the structure and functions of the brain.
Answer:
A human brain is formed of three main parts forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
1. Forebrain: The forebrain is formed of Cerebrum and Diencephalon. The diencephalon consists of dorsal thalamus and ventral hypothalamus.
(a) Cerebrum: It is the largest portion and nearly forms two-third of the brain. The cerebrum is longitudinally divided into two halves, as of right and left cerebral hemispheres by a deep – cleft called median cleft. The two cerebral hemispheres are interconnected by thick band of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer portion of each cerebral hemisphere is formed of grey matter and is called cerebral cortex.

The inner or deeper part is formed of white matter and is called cerebral medulla. The cortex is extremely folded forming elevations called gyri, with depressions between them termed as sulci, that increase the surface area. Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into a frontal lobe, a parietal lobe, a temporal lobe and an occipital lobe. These lobes are also known as cerebral lobes.

(b) Thalamus: Thalamus present in the cerebral medulla is a major conducting centre for sensory and motor signalling. It acts as a relay centre.

(c) Hypothalamus: It lies at the base of the thalamus. It controls the secretions of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland.

2. Midbrain: It is located between thalamus and Hindbrain. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of four rounded bodies called corporaquadrigemina, that control visual and auditory (hearing) reflexes.

3. Hindbrain: It is formed of three parts Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

  • Cerebellum: It is the second-largest part of the brain formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis.
  • Pons: It is a bridge of nerve fibre that connects the lobes of the cerebellum. It relays signals between the cerebellum, spinal cord, midbrain and cerebrum.
  • Medulla Oblongata: It is the posterior-most part of the brain, that connects the spinal cord and various parts of the brain.

Functions of Brain:

StructureFunctions
1. Cerebral cortexSensory perception, Intelligence, consciousness, control of voluntary functions, language, thinking, memory, decision making, creativity, reasoning and will power.
2. ThalamusActs as Relay Station.
3. HypothalamusTemperature control, anger, thirst, hunger, urination, the important link between the nervous system and endocrine glands, sleep, sweating, sexual desire, fear, water balance, blood pressure.
4. MidbrainVisual and Auditory reflexes.
5. CerebellumMaintenance of posture and balance, and co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity.
6. PonsRespiration and Role in the sleep-wake cycle.
7. Medulla OblongataCardiovascular, respiratory and digestive control centres, vasomotor centres to control heartbeat, contraction of blood vessels. It also regulates vomiting and salivation.

Question 3.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

The pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called the reflex arc.

  • When the hand is pricked by a needle, the stimulus is the prick (touch) pain, which is sensed by a receptor called touch or pain receptors in the skin in our hand. This stimulus in tum triggers an impulse in a sensory neuron.
  • The sensory neuron transmits or conveys the message to the spinal cord.
  • The spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron, which in tum transmits it to a motor neuron.
  • Motor neurons carry command from the spinal cord to our arm.
  • The muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately from the needle prick. Muscle is the effector organ which has responded to the prick (pain).

Question 4.
Describe the structure of the spinal cord.
Answer:
The spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges. It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior-most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread-like structure called Filum terminate.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid-filled cavity, known as the central canal. The grey matter of the spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of the letter, ‘H’ forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming the dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward, from the anterior horn forming the ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and has a bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls the reflex actions of the body.

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
All the information from the environment is detected by the receptors, located in the sense organs such as the eyes, nose, skin and etc. Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end. On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

The electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from the brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons are classified, based on their structures:

(a) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton, which acts as both axon and dendron. It is found in early embryos, but not in the adult.

(b) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes, of which one acts as an axon, while another acts as a dendron. Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of the eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal chambers.

(c) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon. Multipolar neurons found in the cerebral cortex of the brain.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of medulla and extend downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage ‘B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’ As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.

  1. What is A?
  2. Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
  3. How much is D?

Answer:

  1. A is spinal cord.
  2. (a) Bony cage is Vertebral column
    (c) is Meninges
  3. D is 31 pairs of spinal nerve.

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body. L has a long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘L’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by the release of chemical substance ‘P’.

  1. Name the cells L
  2. What are M and N?
  3. What is gap O?
  4. Name the chemical substance P?

Answer:

  1. Neuron
  2. Axon and Dendrites
  3. Synaptic Junction (knob)
  4. Neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System

Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The condition needed for the coordination between the various cells and organ for the diverse activities is called _____
Answer:
Homeostasis

Question 2.
A number of nerve fibres bundled up together to form _____
Answer:
Nerves

Question 3.
The other name for cyton is cell body or _____
Answer:
Perikaryon

Question 4.
______ is an important neurotransmitter released by neurons.
Answer:
Acetylcholine

Question 5.
_______ membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.
Answer:
Meningeal

Question 6.
The four rounded bodies of the midbrain are called ______
Answer:
Corporaquadrigemina

Question 7.
The Posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into fibrous thread-like structures called _____
Answer:
Filum terminale

II. Choose the incorrect statement and Write it as a correct statement.

Question 1.
Responses refer to the changes in the environmental conditions, which are detected by receptors.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: Stimulus refer to the changes in the environmental conditions, which are detected by receptors. .

Question 2.
The brain is the controlling centre of all the body activities.
Answer:
Correct Statement

Question 3.
Axon carries impulses towards the cyton.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: Axon carries impulses away from the cyton.

Question 4.
CNS consists of all nerves, which connect the brain and spinal cord to all parts of the body.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: CNS consists of all nerves, which connect the brain and spinal cord to all parts of the body.

Question 5.
A receptor is a cell or group of cells that receive the stimuli.
Answer:
Correct Statement

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Neuroglia(a) Conduct nerve impulses
2. Electrical impulse(b) Connects the lobe of the cerebellum
3. Pons(c) Cerebrospinal fluid
4. Brain(d) Do not conduct nerve impulses
5. Dendrites(e) Information from the receptor

Answer:
1. (d) Do not conduct nerve impulses
2. (e) Information from the receptor
3. (b) Connects the lobe of the cerebellum
4. (c) Cerebrospinal fluid
5. (a) Conduct nerve impulses

IV. Answer the following in a word or with a Sentence.

Question 1.
What are Spinal Reflexes?
Answer:
Most of the reflex actions are monitored and controlled by the spinal cord. So it is called Spinal Reflexes.

Question 2.
Name the two enlargement found in spinal cord.
Answer:
The spinal cord has two enlargements.
Cervical plexus – found in neck region
Lumbar plexus – in Lumbar region.

Question 3.
What is the function of Meningeai membranes in the brain?
Answer:
Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 4.
Write a function of glial cells.
Answer:
Glial cells or Neuroglia are non-exciting, supporting cells of nervous system.

Question 5.
Name the granules in the cytoplasm of Peyton.
Answer:
Nissl’s granules.

Question 6.
Which is the controlling centre of all body activities?
Answer:
Brain

Question 7.
In which fluid, is the brain suspended?
Answer:
The brain is suspended in the cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 8.
Name the four rounded bodies in the dorsal portion of midbrain.
Answer:
Corpora quadrigemina

Question 9.
Which is the longest cell of the human body?
Answer:
The longest cell of the human body is axon.

Question 10.
Name the tapered spinal cord into a thin thread-like structure present in the posterior-most region.
Answer:
Filum terminate.

V. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the following.

Question 1.
(a) Brain
(b) Structure of Spinal Cord
(c) Nerve impulse transmission
Answer:
(a) Brain

(b) Structure of Spinal Cord

(c) Nerve impulse transmission

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is the synaptic transmission?
Answer:
The flow of nerve impulses from the axonal end of one neuron to the dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 2.
What is homeostasis?
Answer:
The coordination between the various cells and organs is essential for their diverse activities to maintain physiological balance called Homeostasis.

Question 3.
What are Neurotransmitters? Give an example.
Answer:
Neurotransmitters are chemicals, which allow the transmission of a nerve impulse from the axon terminal of one neuron to the dendron of another neuron or to an effector organ. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by neurons.

Question 4.
Name the three connective tissue membrane of Meninges.
Answer:

  1. Duramater : Outermost thick fibrous membrane.
  2. Arachnoid membrane : Middle thin vascular membrane provide web like cushion.
  3. Piamater : Innermost thin oblicate membrane richly supplied with blood.

Question 5.
What are the types of nerve fibres?
Answer:
The two types of nerve fibres, based on the presence or absence of myelin sheath are

  • Myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is covered with a myelin sheath.
  • Non-myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is not covered by a myelin sheath.

Myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibres from the white matter and grey matter of the brain.

Question 6.
Why is the Autonomic Nervous System called Visceral nervous system?
Answer:
The Autonomic Nervous System is also called Visceral Nervous System because it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body.

Question 7.
What are the cerebral lobes?
Answer:
Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into a frontal lobe, a parietal lobe, a temporal lobe and an occipital lobe. These lobes are called cerebral lobes.

Question 8.
How are neurons categorized on the basis of functions?
Answer:
On the basis of functions the neurons are categorised as:

  • Sensory or afferent neurons, which carry impulses from the sense organ to the central nervous system.
  • Motor or efferent neurons, which carry impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs such as the muscle fibre and the gland.
  • Association neurons, which conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons.

Question 9.
What is cerebrospinal fluid? What is its functions?
Answer:
The brain is suspended in a special fluid environment called cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Functions:

  • It acts as a shock-absorbing fluid and protects the brain from damage when it is subjected to a sudden jerk.
  • It supplies nutrients to the brain.
  • It collects and removes wastes from the brain.
  • It is responsible for maintaining a constant pressure inside the cranium.

Question 10.
Explain the Peripheral Nervous System.
Answer:
Peripheral Nervous System is formed, by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory.
Nerves arising from the spinal cord are called spinal nerves. In man, there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root.

VI. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Raju got an injury on the head during motorbike accident on the road. Later he faced a problem in maintaining balance of the body while walking or sitting. Which part of the brain do you think is affected?
Answer:
Cerebellum in the brain is affected as it maintains the body balance.

Question 2.
What is Electroencephalogram (EEG)?
Answer:
Electroencephalogram (EEG) is an instrument, which records the electrical impulses of the brain. An EEG can detect abnormalities in the brain waves and help in diagnoses of epilepsy, brain tumours and head injuries, etc.

Question 3.
Name a few brain diseases.
Answer:

  • Alzheimer’s disease (develop, as we age)
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

Question 4.
What are brain injuries? Give examples.
Answer:
The damage of brain tissue, neurons and nerves. This damage affects our brain’s ability to communicate with the rest of our body. Examples of Brain injuries include blood clots, hematomas, swelling inside the skull, strokes and etc.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms of brain injury?
Answer:
Vomiting, Nausea, Speech difficulty, bleeding from the ear, Numbness and etc.


Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, sslc, Science, Solutions, Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals, tamilnadu board,

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Active transport involves ______.
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration.
(b) expenditure of energy.
(c) it is an uphill task.
(d) all of the above.
Answer:
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration.

Question 2.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through:
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) phloem
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 3.
During transpiration, there is loss of ______.
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) oxygen
(c) water
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) water

Question 4.
Root hairs are:
(a) cortical cell
(b) projection of epidermal cell
(c) unicellular
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 5.
Which of the following process requires energy?
(a) active transport
(b) diffusion
(c) osmosis
(d) all of them.
Answer:
(a) active transport

Question 6.
The wall of human heart is made of:
(a) Endocardium
(b) Epicardium
(c) Myocardium
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
Which is the sequence of correct blood flow ______.
(a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
(b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein
(d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries.
Answer:
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein

Question 8.
A patient with blood group 0 was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use for transfusion in this condition?
(a) O group
(b) AB group
(c) A or B group
(d) all blood group
Answer:
(a) O group

Question 9.
‘Heart of heart’ is called ______.
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Bundle of His.
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 10.
Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct?
(a) Plasma – Blood + Lymphocyte
(b) Serum – Blood + Fibrinogen
(c) Lymph – Plasma + RBC + WBC
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
Answer:
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
______ involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
Answer:
Transpiration.

Question 2.
Water enters the root cell through a ______ plasma membrane.
Answer:
Osmosis.

Question 3.
Structures in roots that help to absorb water are ______.
Answer:
Root hairs.

Question 4.
Normal blood pressure is ______.
Answer:
120 mm / 80 mm Hg.

Question 5.
The normal human heartbeat rate is about _______ time per minute.
Answer:
72 – 75.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Symplastic pathway(a) Leaf
2. Transpiration(b) Plasmodesmata
3. Osmosis(c) Pressure in xylem
4. Root Pressure(d) Pressure gradient

Answer:

  1. (b) Plasmodesmata
  2. (a) Leaf
  3. (d) Pressure gradient
  4. (b) Pressure in xylem.

Question 2.

1. Leukaemia(a) Thrombocytes
2. Platelets(b) Phagocyte
3. Monocytes(c) Decrease in leucocytes
4. Leucopenia(d) Blood Cancer
5. AB blood group(e) Allergic condition
6. O blood group(f) Inflammation
7. Eosinophil(g) Absence of antigen
8. Neutrophils(h) Absence of antibody

Answer:

  1. (d) Blood Cancer
  2. (a) Thrombocytes
  3. (b) Phagocyte
  4. (c) Decrease in leucocytes
  5. (h) Absence of antibody
  6. (g) Absence of antigen
  7. (e) Allergic condition
  8. (f) Inflammation.

IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement.

Question 1.
The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Plants lose water by the process of transpiration.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The form of sugar transported through the phloem is Sucrose.

Question 4.
In the apoplastic movement, the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In the apoplastic movement, the water travels through the intercellular spaces and walls of the cell.

Question 5.
When guard cells lose water the stoma opens.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: When guard cells lose water, the stoma closed.

Question 6.
initiation and stimulation of heartbeat take place by nerves.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: All veins carry deoxygenated blood except the Pulmonary vein.

Question 8.
WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole produces the first sound ‘LUBB’.
Answer:
True.

V. Answer in a word or Sentence.

Question 1.
Name two-layered protective covering of the human heart.
Answer:
Pericardium.

Question 2.
What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
Answer:
RBC’s are bioconcave and disc shaped.

Question 3.
Why is the colour of the blood-red?
Answer:
The colour of the blood is red, due to the presence of respiratory pigment Haemoglobin.

Question 4.
Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
Answer:
Cells found in the lymphatics are lymphocytes.

Question 5.
Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
Answer:
Semilunar Valves.

Question 6.
Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
Answer:
Heart muscle receive oxygenated blood from coronary arteries that orginate from the aortic arch.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
During transpiration, the movement of (Potassium) ions, in and out of the guard cells, causes the opening and closing of stomate. When the water moves inside the guard cells, causing them to swell up and become turgid, making the stomata open. When guard cells cause water to move out of the cell, make guard cells shrunk, and the stomata pore closes.

Question 2.
What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between the water molecules is called cohesion.

Question 3.
Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:

Question 4.
What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in the roots?
Answer:
If the rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of absorption, the stomata get closed the cells lose their turgidity and the plant wilts.

Question 5.
Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
Answer:
The human heart is four-chambered. The two upper thin-walled chambers, Auricle or Atria and the lower thick-walled chambers ventricles. The chambers are separated by a septum. The two auricles are separated by an interatrial septum and the two ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum.

The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body through superior vena cava, inferior vena cava and coronary sinus. Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. Both the right and the left auricles pump blood into the right and left ventricles respectively.

From the right ventricle, the pulmonary arteries supply deoxygenated blood to the lungs. From the left ventricle, the Aorta carries the Oxygenated blood to the various organs of the body. The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart. This process is repeated again and again.

Question 6.
Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
Answer:
In human, blood passes twice through the heart to supply once to the body.
Double circulation involves: (i) Systemic circulation, (ii) Pulmonary circulation.
(i) Systemic circulation: In systemic circulation, from the left ventricle blood is pumped into the aorta and to various parts of the body.
(ii) Pulmonary circulation: In pulmonary circulation, from right ventricle deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary artery which carries blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

Question 7.
What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
Answer:
The rhythmic closure and opening of the valves cause the sound of the heart. When the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves after the beginning of ventricular systole, the sound ‘LUBB’ is produced. When the closure of the semilunar valve at the end of ventricular systole, the sound ‘DUPP’ is produced.

Question 8.
What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Answer:
The valves in heart are muscular flap that regulates the flow of blood in a single direction and prevents back flow of blood.

Question 9.
Who discovered the Rh factor? Why was it named so?
Answer:
The Rh factor was discovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940 in Rhesus monkey. So it was named the Rh factor.

Question 10.
How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Answer:

ArteryVein
1. Distributing vessel1. Collecting vessel
2. Pink in colour2. Red in colour
3. Deep location3. Superficial in location
4. Blood flow with high pressure4. Blood flow with low pressure
5. Wall of an artery is strong, thick and elastic5. Wall of a vein is weak, thin and non-elastic
6. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary arteries6. All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary veins
7. Internal valves are absent7. Internal valves are present

Question 11.
Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?
Answer:
Although impulse is produced by the entire neuro muscular pathway, the frequency of impulse generation is maximum in case of Sino atrial node in comparison to other parts of pathway. Hence it guides the rhythm of heart beat and is called the pacemaker of the heart.

Question 12.
Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Answer:

Systemic CirculationPulmonary Circulation
1. Circulation of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the heart to various organs of the body.1. Circulation starts in the right ventricle of the heart and reaches the lungs with deoxygenated blood.
2. Return of deoxygenated blood to the right atrium.2. Pulmonary Artery collects the oxygenated blood from the lungs.
3. Aorta carries oxygenated blood to all the organs of the body.3. The Oxygenated blood is supplied to the left atrium of the heart by the Pulmonary.

Question 13.
The complete events of the cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?
Answer:

  1. Auricular systole – Contraction of auricles = 0.1 sec
  2. Ventricular systole – Contraction of ventricle = 0.3 sec
  3. Ventricular diastole – Relaxation of ventricle = 0.4 sec

VII. Give reasons for the following Statements.

Question 1.
Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
Answer:
The minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots because

  • The minerals are present in the soil as charged particles (ion) and cannot move across the cell membrane.
  • The concentration of minerals in the soil is lower than the concentration of minerals in the root.

Question 2.
Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of Stomata.
Answer:
Opening and closing of stomata takes place due to changes in turgor of guard cell. The turgor changes in the guard cells are due to entry and exit of water into and out of the guard cells. During the day, water from the subsidiary cells enter the guard cells making it fully turgid causing the stomata to open. During night time, water from guard cells enters the subsidiary cells makes the guard cells flaccid causing the stomata closes.

Question 3.
The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
Answer:
The movement of substance in the Phloem can be in any direction because, the food to reach the plant parts like stem, leaves, flower, bud, seeds etc, the movement can be upwards or downwards, that is bidirectional.

Question 4.
Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
Answer:
Minerals are remobilised from older drying leaves to younger leaves. Elements like phosphorous, sulphur, nitrogen, potassium are easily mobilised, while elements like calcium are not remobilised. This can be seen in decidous leaves.

Question 5.
The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
Answer:
The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricle because, the right ventricle has to pump out the blood with force to the Pulmonary trunk, which bifurcates to form the right and left Pulmonary Arteries.

Question 6.
Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell organelles.
Answer:
The RBCs are devoid of nucleus, mitochondria ribosome and endoplasmic reticulum. The absence of these organelles accommodates more haemoglobin thereby maximising the oxygen carrying capacity of the cell. Biconcave shape increase the surface area for oxygen binding, loss of mitochondria allow the RBC to transport all the oxygen to tissues and loss of endoplasmic reticulum allows more flexibility for RBC to move through the narrow capillaries.

VIII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How do plants absorb water? Explain.
Answer:
There are millions of root hairs on the tip of the root, which absorb water and minerals by diffusion. Diffusion takes place across cell membranes. Root hairs are a thin-walled, slender, extension of Epidermal cell, that increases the surface area of absorption. Active transport utilises energy to pump molecules against a concentration gradient. Active transport is carried out by membrane – bound proteins. These proteins use energy to carry substances across the cell membrane.

The cell wall of root hair is permeable and allows the water and minerals to enter. The cell membrane is semi – permeable. So it allows movement of water molecules from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration. Once the water enters the root hairs, the concentration of water molecules in the root hair cells become more than that of Cortex. So the water from the root hair moves to the cortical cells by osmosis and then reaches the xylem.

Due to transpiration, the water is lost from the leaves and pressure is created at the top to pull more water from the xylem to the mesophyll cells, by the process of Transpiration pull. This extends up to the roots causing the roots to absorb more water from the soil to ensure the continuous flow of water from the roots to the leaves.

Question 2.
What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
Answer:
The loss of water from the aerial parts of plant in the form of vapours is called transpiration.
Importance of transpiration:

  1. Creates transpirational pull for transport of water.
  2. Supplies water for photosynthesis.
  3. Transports minerals from soil to all parts of the plant.
  4. Cools the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
  5. Keeps the cells turgid; hence, maintains their shape.

Question 3.
Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
Answer:
White blood corpuscles are colourless. They are nucleated cells. They are found in the bone marrow, spleen, thymus and lymph nodes. They are grouped into two categories:
1. Granulocytes: They contain granules in their cytoplasm. Their nucleus is irregular or lobed. The granulocytes are of three types:

  • Neutrophils: They are large in size and have a 2 – 7 lobed nucleus. Their numbers are increased during infection and inflammation.
  • Eosinophils: It has a bilobed nucleus. Their numbers increases during conditions of allergy and parasitic infections. It brings about the detoxification of toxins.
  • Basophils: Basophils have a lobed nucleus. They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.

2. Agranulocytes: Granules are not found in the cytoplasm of these cells. Thy is of two types:

  • Lymphocytes: Lymphocytes produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
  • Monocytes: They are the largest of the leucocytes and are amoeboid in shape. They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.

Question 4.
Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
Answer:
systole:
The contraction of heart is called systole.
diastole:
The relaxation of heart is called diastole.
Conduction of heart beat : The heart in human is myogenic. The cardiac cells with fastest rhythm are called the pacemaker cells. These cells are located in the right sino-atrial node. The impulse from the sino-atrial node. spreads as a wave of contraction over the right and left atrial wall pushing the blood through the atrio ventricular valves into the ventricle. Two special cardiac muscles fibres originate from the auriculo ventricular node and are called the bundle of his which runs down into the interventricular septum and the fibres spread into the ventricles. These fibres are called the Purkinje.

Question 5.
Enumerate the functions of blood.
Answer:
Functions of blood:

  • Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO2).
  • Transport of digested food materials to different body cells.
  • Transport of hormones.
  • Transport of nitrogenous excretory products like ammonia, urea and uric acid.
  • It is involved in the protection of the body and defence against diseases.
  • It acts as a buffer and also helps in the regulation of pH and body temperature.
  • It maintains proper water balance in the body.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning Questions.

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: RBC plays an important role in the transport of respiratory gases.
Reason: RBC does not have cell organelles and nucleus.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion: Persons with AB blood group are called universal recipients because they can receive blood from all groups.
Reason: Antibodies are absent in persons with AB blood group.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the phenomenon involved in this change.
Answer:
The swelling up is due to Imbibition. Imbibition is a type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up. If Imbibition were not there, seedlings would not have been able to emerge out of the soil.

Question 2.
Why are the wails of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
Answer:
The left ventricles have thick walls because the ventricle have to pump out blood with force away from the heart.

Question 3.
Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
Answer:
The heart sound is heard by placing the stethoscope on the chest. It is a useful diagnostic tool to identify and localize the health problems and diagnose disease.

Question 4.
How does the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared to a normal artery and vein?
Answer:

  1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except the pulmonary artery which carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
  2. All veins carry deoxygenated blood except the pulmonary vein which carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

Question 5.
Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
Answer:
Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants because it is inevitable but potentially harmful. Loss of water from the plant results wilting and cause the death of a plant if a condition of drought is experienced.
But transpiration is a great significance for the plant.

  • Water is conducted, in most tall plants due to transpiration pull.
  • Minerals dissolved in water are distributed throughout the plant body by Transpiration Stream.
  • Evaporation of water from the cells of leaves has a cooling effect on plants.
  • The wet surface of leaf cells allows gaseous exchange.

Textbook Activities Solved

Activity 1.
Demonstration of Osmosis: A thistle funnel whose mouth is covered with a semipermeable membrane is filled with sucrose solution. It is kept inverted in a beaker containing water. The water will diffuse across the membrane due to osmosis and raise the level of the solution in the funnel.
Answer:
A thistle funnel, whose mouth is covered with parchment paper, which acts as a semi-permeable membrane, is filled with sucrose solution. The funnel is kept inverted in a beaker, containing water. The water from the beaker enters or diffuse across the membrane from the region of water higher concentration to the water lower concentration (Sucrose Solution) through Semi – Permeable membrane, by osmosis. This causes the rise of the level of a solution in the funnel.

Activity 2.
Demonstration of Root Pressure: Choose a small soft – stemmed plant. Cut the stem horizontally near the base with a blade in the morning. You will see drops of solution oozing out of the cut stem due to root pressure.
Answer:
We will see drops of solution Oozing out of the cell stem. The Root Pressure, which pushes ^the solution up from the base.

Activity 3.
Determining Heart Rate?
Answer:
Materials:

  1. Stopwatch or Stop clock.

Procedure:

  1. Have your partner to find the pulse in your wrist and count your heartbeats for 15 seconds while you are seated. Calculate your resting heart rate in beats per minute.
  2. Have your partner to count your heart beats for 15 seconds after you jog or run for 5 minutes. Calculate your heart rate in beats per minute.

Analyse:
(i) What causes your pulse?
(ii) What causes the change in your heartbeat rate in each situation? You can write the answer yourself.
Answer:
(i) Pulse, rhythmic dilation of an artery generated by the opening and closing of the aortic valve in the heart. A pulse can be felt by applying firm fingertip pressure to the skin at sites where the arteries travel near the skin’s surface; it is more evident when surrounding muscles are relaxed.
(ii) You can write the answer yourself.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals

Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ is responsible for the movement of water up to the base of the stem.
Answer:
Root pressure.

Question 2.
The other name for Red blood corpuscles (RBC) is called ______.
Answer:
Erythrocytes.

Question 3.
The apices of the flaps of tricuspid valves are held in position by ______.
Answer:
Chordaetendinae.

Question 4.
The supply of blood to the heart muscles is called ______ circulation.
Answer:
Coronary.

Question 5.
Sinuses are the body cavities which are called ______.
Answer:
Haemocoel.

II. Write True or False for the following statements. Write the true statement for the false statement.

Question 1.
Root hairs are a thin-walled, slender extension of Parenchyma cells.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Root hairs are a thin-walled, slender extension of epidermal cell.

Question 2.
The transpiration pull sucks the water column from the xylem tubes so that the water is able to rise up in the tallest plants. Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The force of attraction between the molecules of companion cells is called cohesion.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The force of attraction between the molecules of water is called cohesion,

Question 4.
Blood platelets help in the clotting of blood, form clot at the site of injury and prevent blood loss.
Answer:
True.


III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Universal Recipient(a) Left Atrio Ventricular Valve
2. Blood(b) Thin and non-elastic cells
3. Thymocytes(c) Blood group AB
4. Universal Donor(d) Thick and elastic cells
5. Mitral(e) Blood group ‘O’
6. Veins(f) Blood platelets
7. Arteries(g) Connective tissue

Answer:

  1. (c) Blood group AB
  2. (g) Connective tissue
  3. (f) Blood platelets
  4. (e) Blood group ‘O’
  5. (a) Left Atrio Ventricular Valve
  6. (b) Thin and non-elastic cells
  7. (d) Thick and elastic cells

IV. Answer the following in a word or a Sentence.

Question 1.
What is Root Pressure?
Answer:
As ion from the Soil is actively transported into the Vascular tissue of the root, water moves along and increases the pressure inside the Xylem. This pressure is called root pressure.

Question 2.
What is the role of valves in heart?
Answer:
The valves are muscular flap that regulates the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent back flow of blood.

Question 3.
What is capillary action?
Answer:
Water or any liquid rises in a capillary tube because of physical forces. This phenomenon is called capillary action.

Question 4.
What is normal heart beat in man? How does it occur?
Answer:
The normal heart beat in man is about 72 – 75 times per minute. Rhythmic contraction and expansion of heart causes heart beat.

Question 5.
What are capillaries?
Answer:
Capillaries are narrow tubes formed by branching of arterioles which then unite to form the venules and veins. Capillaries are formed of a single layer of endothelial cells.

Question 6.
What is a pulse?
Answer:
The expansion of the artery every time, the blood is forced into it is called pulse. Normal pulse rate ranges from 70 – 90 per minute.

Question 7.
What is Cardiac Cycle?
Answer:
The sequence of events occurring from the beginning to the completion of one heartbeat is called the Cardiac Cycle.

Question 8.
What is hypertension?
Answer:
The condition, where a prolonged or constant elevation of blood pressure exist is called hypertension (High blood pressure)

Question 9.
What is Apoplast pathway?
Answer:
The apoplastic movement of water occurs through the intercellular spaces and the walls of the cells with gradient energy.

Question 10.
Why are membrane – bound proteins called pumps?
Answer:
Active transport is carried out by membrane-bound proteins. These proteins use energy to carry substances across the cell membrane. So they are called pumps.

Question 11.
When does plasmolysis occur?
Answer:
Plasmolysis occur when water moves out of the cell and resulting in the shrinkage of cell membrane away from the cell wall.

Question 12.
What are Lymph nodes?
Answer:
Lymph nodes are small oval or fan-shaped structures, located along the length of lymphatic vessels.

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Define the following.

  1. Diffusion
  2. Osmosis
  3. Plasmolysis

Answer:

  1. Diffusion: The movement of molecules in liquid and solids from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration, without the utilization of energy is called Diffusion.
  2. Osmosis: Osmosis is the movement of solvent or water molecules, from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a semi – permeable membrane.
  3. Plasmolysis: Plasmolysis is a process, which occurs, when water moves out of the cell and resulting in the shrinkage of the cell membrane, away from the cell wall.

Question 2.
Explain cardiac cycle.
Answer:
The sequence of events occurring from the beginning to the completion of one heart beat is called cardiac cycle. During cardiac cycle blood flows ’ through the chambers of the heart in a specific direction. Each cardiac cycle lasts about 0.8 second. The events during a single cardiac cycle involves

  1. Atrial systole: Contraction of auricles (0.1 sec)
  2. Ventricular systole: Contraction of ventricles (0.3 sec)
  3. Ventricular diastole: Relaxation of ventricles (0.4 sec)

Question 3.
Explain the two types of Circulatory System.
Answer:
The two types of Circulatory System in animals are

  1. Open type: The blood is pumped by the heart into blood vessels, that open into blood spaces called sinuses, which are the body cavities called haemocoel. Capillary System is absent. Eg. Arthropods, Molluscs, Ascidians.
  2. Clsed type: The blood flows in a complete circuit around the body, through specific blood vessels. The blood flows from arteries to veins, through small blood vessels called capillaries. Eg. Vertebrates.

Question 4.
What is Blood Pressure? How is blood pressure expressed?
Answer:
The force exerted during the flow of blood against the lateral walls of arteries is called Blood Pressure. Blood pressure is usually expressed in terms of systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.

  1. Systolic pressure: The pressure, during ventricular systole, the left ventricle contracts and forces the blood into the aorta is called systolic pressure.
  2. Diastolic pressure: The pressure, during diastole, the ventricle relaxes and the pressure falls to the lowest value, is called Diastolic pressure.

In a healthy adult, during the normal resting condition, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure is expressed as 120mm / 80mm Hg.

Question 5.
In a Tabular Column, mention the distribution of Antigen (RBC) and antibody (Plasma) in different blood groups.
Answer:

Blood GroupAntigens on RBCAntibodies in PlasmaCan donate toCan receive from
AAntigen Aanti – bA and ABA and O
BAntigen Banti – aB and ABB and O
ABAntigen A and BNo AntibodyABA, B, AB and O (Universal Recipient)
ONo AntigenBoth anti a and bA, B, AB and O (Universal Donor)O

Question 6.
Write a note on valves of human.
Answer:
Valves : The valves are the muscular flaps that regulate the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent back flow of blood. The heart contains three types of valves. Right atrioventricular valve : It is located between the right auricle and right ventricle.

It has three thin triangular leaf like flaps and therefore called tricuspid valve. The apices of the flaps are held in position by chordae tendinae arising from the muscular projection of the ventricle wall known as papillary muscles.

Left atrioventricular valve : It is located between the left auricle and left ventricle. It has two cusps and therefore called bicuspid or mitral valve.
Semilunar valves : The major arteries (pulmonary artery and aorta) which leave the heart have semilunar valves which prevent backward flow of blood into the ventricles. They are the pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves.

Question 7.
What is Sphygmo Manometer? Name the instruments used to measure Blood pressure.
Answer:
The sphygmomanometer is a clinical instrument used to measure blood pressure when a person is in a relaxed and resting condition. The pressure of the brachial artery is measured. It helps to estimate the state of blood circulation and the working of the heart. It helps to diagnose conditions such as increased or decreased blood pressure. Monometric and modem digital types are used to measure blood pressure.

Question 8.
What are the factors which affect transpiration?
Answer:
Transpiration is affected by several external and internal factors.

  • External factors: Temperature, light, humidity, and wind speed.
  • Internal factors: Number and distribution of Stomata, Percentage of open stomata, Water status of the plant and Canopy Structure.

VI. Draw a labelled diagram for the following.

Question 1.
(a) Root tip with root hairs.
(b) Guard cell in turgid and Flacid condition.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of the internal structure of Human Heart.
Answer:

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the types of Blood Circulation.
Answer:
The blood circulates in our body as oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. The types of circulation are:

  1. Systemic Circulation: Circulation of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the heart to various organs of the body and return of deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. Aorta carries oxygenated blood to all the organs of the body.
  2. Pulmonary Circulation: The path of pulmonary circulation starts in the right ventricle. Pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle and reaches the lungs with deoxygenated blood. Pulmonary veins collect the oxygenated blood from the lungs and supplies it to the left atrium of the heart.
  3. Coronary circulation: The supply of blood to the heart muscles (cardiac muscles) is called coronary circulation. Cardiac muscles receive oxygenated blood from coronary arteries, that originate from the aortic arch. Deoxygenated blood from the cardiac muscles, drains into the right atrium by the coronary sinuses.

In human, the blood circulates twice, through the heart in one complete cycle, called double circulation. The oxygenated blood does not mix with the deoxygenated blood.

Question 2.
Explain the Lymphatic System with diagram and mention the function of Lymph.
Answer:
The lymphatic system consists of lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes and lymphatic ducts.
Lymph is a fluid, that flows through the lymphatic system. The lymphatic capillaries unite to form large lymphatic vessels. Lymph nodes are small, oval or pear-shaped structures located along the lymphatic vessels.

Lymph from the intercellular spaces drains into lymphatic capillaries. Lymph is a colourless fluid formed when Plasma, Proteins and blood cells escape into intercellular spaces in the tissues, through the pores present in the walls of the capillaries. It is similar to blood plasma, but is colourless and contains fewer proteins. The lymph contains a very small amount of nutrients, Oxygen, CO2, water and WBC.

Functions of Lymph:

  • Supplies nutrients and oxygen to those parts where blood cannot reach.
  • It drains away excess tissue fluid and metabolites and returns proteins to the blood from tissue spaces.
  • The lymph also carries absorbed fats from small intestine to the blood. The lymphatic capillaries of internal villi (lacteals) absorb digested fats.
  • Lymphocytes in the lymph defend the body from infections.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about the following?

  1. Anaemia
  2. Leucocytosis
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Thrombocytopenia

Answer:

  1. Anaemia → Decrease in the number of Erythrocytes.
  2. Leucocytosis → Increase in the number of Leukocytes.
  3. Leukopenia → Decrease in the number of Leukocytes.
  4. Thrombocytopenia → Decrease in the number of Thrombocytes.

Question 2.
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctor finds that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be drafted at the site of.
Answer:
Sino-atrial node, which acts as the pacemaker of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse which can stimulate the heart muscles to contraction.

Question 3.
What do you know about the following important terms, which we come across every day?

  1. Heart attack
  2. Cardiac arrest
  3. Heart Failure.

Answer:

  1. Heart attack: The blood flow to the heart is blocked. A blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. The heart muscle affected from lack of blood supply.
  2. Cardiac arrest: The heart stops beating and needs to be restarted. Cardiac arrest is an electrical problem, triggered by a disruption of the heart’s rhythm.
  3. Heart Failure: Heart Failure occurs, when the heart muscle fails to pump as much as blood as the body needs. It may come to a person suddenly.

Question 4.
Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because:
Answer:
Food does not travel down and root becomes starved (Translocation of food).


Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, sslc, Science, Solutions, Chapter 13, Structural Organisation of Animals, tamilnadu board,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In leech, locomotion is performed by _____.
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as:
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites)

Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of _____.
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system.
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above the:
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

Question 5.
The body of leech has _____.
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments.
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are ______ animals.
(a) Cold – blooded
(b) Warm – blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(b) Warm – blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Viviparous

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the _______ segments.
Answer:
Last seven.

Question 2.
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ______ dentition.
Answer:
Diphyodont.

Question 3.
The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called _____.
Answer:
Sucker.

Question 4.
The blood-sucking habit of a leech is known as _____.
Answer:
Sanguivorous.

Question 5.
______ separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in the rabbit.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 6.
_____ spinal nerves are present in the rabbit.
Answer:
37 pairs of.

III. Identify whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
An anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called heparin.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called Hirudin.

Question 2.
The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.

Question 3.
The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The rabbit has a third eyelid called Nictitating membrane, which is movable.

Question 4.
Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The cerebral hemispheres of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The cerebral hemisphere of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called Corpus callosum.

IV. Match the Columns I, II and III correctly.

Question 1.

OrgansMembranous CoveringLocation
BrainPleuraabdominal cavity
KidneyCapsuleMediastinum
HeartMeningesenclosed in the thoracic cavity
LungsPericardiumcranial cavity

Answer:

OrgansMembranous CoveringLocation
BrainMeningescranial cavity
KidneyCapsuleabdominal cavity
HeartPericardiumenclosed in the thoracic cavity
LungsPleuramediastinum

V. Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
The leech respire through skin (diffusion).

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of the rabbit.
Answer:
Dental formula is (I21,C00,PM32,M33)in Rabbit, which is written as 20331023

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
In leech, there are eleven pairs of testes. One pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
The diastema is formed in Rabbit, as a gap between the incisors and premolars,

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
Lung, Bronchioles and Alveoli are the Organs, attached to Bronchi.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The muscular pharynx found below the buccal cavity acts as suction pump in leech. It is surrounded by large masses, unicellular glands called salivary glands.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
CNS stands for Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why are the teeth of a rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The teeth of Rabbit are of different types. So it is called heterodont.

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
In leech, blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. The saliva contains an active substance called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in the trachea of a rabbit?
Answer:
Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage, which help in the free passage of air.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
Answer:

  1. The suckers are the primary organ of the blood sucking.
  2. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx.
  3. Leeches attaches itself to the body of host by Anterior and Posterior ends of the body.
  4. The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a painless triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host.
  5. A protein called hirudin is produced in the salivary gland of leech to prevent blood coagulation. Thus, a continuous supply of the blood is maintained.
  6. Parapodia and setae are completely absent.
  7. Leeches also inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite.
  8. In the crop, blood is stored which gives nourishment to the leech for several months. Due to this reason there is no eloborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
There are no true blood vessels in leeches. The blood vessels are replaced by canals called haemocoelic canals. These canals are filled with haemocoelic fluid. There are four longitudinal canals. One is dorsal lying above the alimentary canal, another is ventral lying below the alimentary canal. The remaining two are lateral lying on either side of the alimentary canal. These four canals are connected together at the posterior end. There is no heart, but the lateral channels serve as a heart by being contractile. They have values inside. The dorsal and ventral channels are non-contractile having no muscular walls.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:
Locomotion in leech takes place by:

  • Looping or Crawling movement: This type of movement is brought about, by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers, serve for attachment, during movement on a substratum.
  • Swimming movement: Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movements in the water.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of the rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
A pair of Testes, which are ovoid in shape, are enclosed by Scrotal Sac, in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called Seminiferous tubules. This network of tubules leads into a coiled tubule called Epididymis, which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens join in the urethra, just below the Urinary Bladder. The Urethra runs backwards and passes into the penis.

The Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland are the three accessory glands, whose secretions are involved in reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin ? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The leech makes a wound with the jaws by making a rasping movement. The blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. They inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite. The saliva contains an active substances called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The explanation of the grandfather would have been as follows: Teeth are hard bone – like structures, used to cut, tear and grind the food. There are incisors, canines, premolars and molars teeth are seen. Canines are absent. Something different from the teeth is the gap between incisors and premolar, which is called Diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing the food.

IX. Value-Based Questions.

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an secretion of digestive juices and enzymes -Why?
Answer:
The blood sucked by the leech is stored up in the crop. The blood gets haemolysed in the crop. Then the blood is passed drop by drop into the stomach where it is digested slowly by the peptolytic enzyme. The digested blood is absorbed slowly by the intestine.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
The caecum is a thin – walled sac present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine. It contains bacteria, that helps in digestion of cellulose. So the digestive system of Rabbit is suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals

Additional Questions Solved

I. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Segmentation(a) Hirudin
2. Gregarious(b) Vagina
3. Blood clotting(c) Metamerism
4. Four chambered(d) Move-in groups
5. Oviducts(e) Septum

Answer:
1. (c) Metamerism
2. (d) Move-in groups
3. (a) Hirudin
4. (e) Septum
5. (b) Vagina.

II. Choose the correct pair.

Question 1.
The digestion of cellulose in rabbit takes place in:
(a) vemiform appendix
(b) colon
(c) caecum
(d) ileum
Answer:
(c) caecum

Question 2.
(a) Ureter and Dermis
(b) Clitella and Mouth
(c) Vagina and Egg case
(d) Sucker and Small intestine.
Answer:
(c) Vagina and Egg case

Question 3.
Total number of incisors teeth in rabbit is:
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 4.
(a) Mouth and Metamerism
(b) Ganglion and Colon
(c) Intestine and Integument
(d) Expiration and Inspiration.
Answer:
(d) Expiration and Inspiration

Question 5.
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands
(b) Triradiate and Thoracic
(c) Trachea and Tricuspid
(d) Seminiferous and Sansuivorous.
Answer:
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands

III. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
In leech, the ______ tissue lies beneath longitudinal muscles and fills the entire colon around the gut.
Answer:
Botryoidal.

Question 2.
_____ teeth are absent in Rabbit.
Answer:
Canine.

Question 3.
Digestion in leech takes place in the stomach by the action of ______ enzyme.
Answer:
Proteolytic.

Question 4.
The anterior part of the windpipe is enlarged to form ______ or _____.
Answer:
Larynx or Voicebox.

Question 5.
The opening of the pulmonary artery and Aorta are guarded by three ________ valves.
Answer:
Semilunar.

Question 6.
The coelomic fluid contains _____.
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 7.
The Jaws of Leeches are provided with _____.
Answer:
Papillae.

Question 8.
The pain of testes is enclosed by a sac called _____.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 9.
Central Nervous System consists of _______ and _____.
Answer:
Brain, Spinal Chord.

Question 10.
Autonomous nervous system comprises _______ and _____.
Answer:
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic.

Question 11.
Each kidney is made up of several _____.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 12.
In Rabbits, as male and female sexes are separate, _____ is exhibited.
Answer:
Sexual dimorphism.

Question 13.
The other name for the voice box is _____ and the other name for the windpipe is _____.
Answer:
Larynx, Trachea.

Question 14.
The right and left ventricles are separated by _____.
Answer:
Inter Ventricular Septum

Question 15.
The external ear or ______ is situated at the top of the head in Rabbits.
Answer:
Pinnae.

IV. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The largest portion of the Alimentary Canal in Leech is _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Pharynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(d) Crop.

Question 2.
In Leech, the dense network of tiny blood vessels, containing Haemocoelic fluid is called _____.
(a) Artery
(b) Capillaries
(c) Vein
(d) Blood Vessel.
Answer:
(b) Capillaries

Question 3.
Body wall of Leech includes ______ layers.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 4.
In female Rabbits, these four or five structures are present on the ventral surface between the thorax and abdomen _____.
(a) Nipples or Trets
(b) Limbs
(c) Vibrissae
(d) Diaphragm.
Answer:
(a) Nipples or Trets

Question 5.
In male rabbits, this structure is found in the ventral side of Anus _____.
(a) Claws
(b) Sweat glands
(c) Penis
(d) Abdomen.
Answer:
(c) Penis

V. Read the following statements and correct them, if it is not true.

Question 1.
Dorsal surface of Leech is Orange Yellow or Red in colour.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Dorsal surface of Leech is Olive green in colour.

Question 2.
The clitellum is formed on segments 9 to 11, which is meant to produce cocoon, during the breeding season.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Sternum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Diaphragm.

Question 4.
Mammary glands are the modified glands of the skin.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The supra pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The sub pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.

VI. Find the Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Cuticle, Epidermis, Sphincters, Muscular layer.
Answer:
Sphincters.

Question 2.
Undigested food, Genital pore, Rectum, Anus.
Answer:
Genital pore.

Question 3.
Gregarious, Thorax, Abdomen, Pinnae.
Answer:
Gregarious.

Question 4.
Nephrons, Nitrogenous waste, Scrotal Sac, Urea.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 5.
Teats or Nipples, Hairs, Claws, Nails
Answer:
Teats or Nipples.

V. Answer the following in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Where is mouth located in Leech?
Answer:
The mouth is located in the middle of the Anterior Sucker.

Question 2.
List out the structures derived from the skin of rabbit.
Answer:
The structures derived from the skin of rabbit are hair, claws, nails and glands like sweat glands, sebaceous glands and mammary glands.

Question 3.
What is Epiglottis?
Answer:
Epiglottis is a flap, in the neck, which prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.

Question 4.
The excretory system of rabbit is called a urinogenital system?
Answer:
The Urinogenital system of rabbit comprises the urinary system and genital or reproductive system. So they are called urinogenital system.

Question 5.
Where are Annular and Segmental receptors located?
Answer:
Annular receptors are located in each annulus and Segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 6.
What are Vibrissae?
Answer:
In Rabbit, from each side of upper lip tactile hairs or Whiskers present, which are called Vibrissae.

Question 7.
What is the scientific name of rabbit?
Answer:
The scientific name of rabbit is Oryctolagus cuniculus.

Question 8.
Which glands regulate the body temperature of Rabbits?
Answer:
The Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands embedded in the skin regulate the body temperature of Rabbits.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the Excretory System of Leech briefly.
Answer:
In Leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called Nephridia. There are 17 pairs of Nephridia, which open out by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segments.

Question 2.
Explain the types of coelom in leech.
Answer:
Leech contains special longitudinal canals called haemocoelic canals filled with a blood like fluid called haemocolic fluid. This type of coelom is called Haemocoel.

Question 3.
What are Receptors? Write a short note on Receptors.
Answer:
Sensory projections are called Receptors on the dorsal side, there are five pairs of eyes on the first five segments. Annular receptors are located in each Annulus and segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 4.
What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same animals, ‘ then the organism is said to hermaphrodite.

Question 5.
Name three accessory glands, which involve in the male reproductive system of Rabbit.
Answer:

  • Prostate gland
  • Cowper’s gland
  • Perineal gland.

Their secretion involved in Reproduction.

Question 6.
Name the following:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit
(b) Division of brain
Answer:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit

  • Dura mater
  • Inner Piameter
  • Arachnoid membrane.

(b) Division of brain

  1. Forebrain (Prosencephalon)
  2. Midbrain (Mesencephalon)
  3. Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon).

Question 7.
Write a note on Medicinal value of Leech.
Answer:

  1. Leeches breaks up blood clots.
  2. Increases blood circulation
  3. Leeches are used to treat cardio vascular diseases.
  4. Saliva of leeches are used in the preparation of drugs that can treat hypertension.

Question 8.
With the Tabular Column, mention the Divisions of the body of Leech.
Answer:

RegionSegments
Cephalic region1st – 5th
Pre-clitellar region6th, 7th and 8th
Clitellar region9th, 10th and 11th
Middle region12th – 22nd
Caudal region23rd – 26th
Posterior sucker27th – 33rd

Question 9.
Explain the hermaphrodite structure of leech.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite because it contain both male and female genital organ in same animal.
Male Reproductive system: It is formed of: (i) Testes, (ii) Vas efferens, (Hi) Epididymis, (iv) Ejaculatory ducts and atrium.

There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of spherical sacs called testes sacs. From each testes arises a short duct called vas efferens, which join with the vas deferens. The vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa.

The epididymis leads to a short duct called ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory ducts on both sides join to form the genital atrium. The atrium consists of two regions, the coiled prostate glands and the penial sac consisting of penis that opens through the male genital pore.

Female Reproductive system : It consists of ovaries, oviducts and vagina. There is a single pair of ovary in the 11th segment on the ventral side. Each ovary is a coiled ribbon-shaped structure. The ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct. The oviducts of the two sides joins together, to form a common oviduct. The common oviduct opens into a pear-shaped vagina which lies mid-ventrally in the posterior part of the 11th segment.

VIII. Label the following diagrams.

Question 1.
Draw and label the female Reproductive System of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the Digestive System of Leech.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw and label the Brain of the rabbit.
Answer:

Question 4.
Draw and label the Lung of Rabbit.
Answer:

IX. Answer the following in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Digestive System of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Teeth are hard, bone – like structures used to cut, tear and grind the food materials. The digestive system includes the Alimentary canal and the associated digestive glands. The alimentary canal consists of a mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and anus. The mouth is a transverse slit, bounded by upper and lower lips.

It leads to a buccal cavity muscular tongue is at the floor of the buccal cavity. Jaws bear teeth. Buccal cavity leads into Oesophagus. Oesophagus opens into the stomach followed by the small intestine. The thin-walled Sac, called Caecum, present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine, contains bacteria, which helps in digestion of cellulose.

The digestive glands such as salivary glands, gastric glands, Liver, Pancreas and intestinal glands secrete digestive juices, which help in the digestion of food in the Alimentary canal. After digestion, from the small intestine, the undigested food and wastes enter into the large intestine, which has colon and rectum. The rectum opens outside by the Anus.

Question 2.
Explain the male and the female Reproductive system of Leech with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite, both the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same.
Male Reproductive system: There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of Spherical Sacs called testes sacs. From each testis arises a short duct called Vas efferents, which join with the Vas deferens.

The Vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa. The epididymis leads to a short duct called the ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct on both sides joins to form Genital Atrium. The Atrium consists of prostate glands and the Penial sac, with Penis, that opens through the genital pore.

Female Reproductive system: It consists of Ovaries, Oviducts and Vagina. Each ovary is coiled, ribbon-shaped, and the single pair of the ovary is in the 11th segment. The Ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct, and the oviducts of two sides join together, to form a common Oviduct, which opens into a pear-shaped Vagina. Vagina lies mid ventrally in the posterior part of 11th segment.

Internal fertilisation takes place. This is followed by cocoon formation. The cocoon or egg case is formed around 9th, 10th and 11th segments. Development directs, proceeds in a cocoon, which contain one to 24 embryos. The emerging young leech resembles the adult Leech.

Question 3.
Explain the Circulatory system of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram of a Heart.
(i) Observe the external morphology of leech specimen in your biology laboratory.
(ii) Can you find leeches in your locality?
(iii) In which geographical areas are leeches found more predominantly in India?
Answer:
The Circulatory system consists of blood, blood vessels and Heart. The Heart is pear-shaped, lies in between the lungs, in the thoracic cavity. The heart is covered by a double-layered Pericardium. The Heart is four-chambered, with two Auricles and two ventricles. The right and the left ventricles are separated by inter auricular septum. The right and the left ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. The right auricle opens into the right ventricle, by right Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a tricuspid valve. The left auricle opens into the left ventricle by left Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a bicuspid valve or Mitral valve. The opening of the Pulmonary Artery and Aorta are guarded by three semilunar valves.

The right Auricle receives deoxygenated blood through two Precaval (superior vena cava) and one postcaval (Inferior vena cava) veins from all parts of the body. The left auricle receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins from the lungs.
From the right ventricle arises Pulmonary trunk, which carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs and from the left ventricle arises the systemic arch (aorta) which supplies Oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.

(i) Observe the external morphology of Leech in the preserved bottle specimens in the Biology Laboratory.
(ii) No, Not in our areas. The Leeches are common in hilly areas
(iii) Most Leech species are found in shallow, slow-moving freshwater and moist soil on land.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
How were Leeches used in Ancient times?
Answer:
Leeches were used in medicines from Ancient times. Until the 19th century, Leeches were used to draw blood from patients.

Question 2.
How are Leeches used in modern times?
Answer:
In modem times, Leeches find medical use in the treatment of Joint diseases such as Epicondylitis and Osteoarthritis, Extremity vein diseases and Microsurgery. Hirudin is a valuable dmg for some blood clotting disorders. There are doctors who will use Leeches to treat muscle cramps.

Question 3.
What is the benefit of Rabbit?
Answer:
Rabbit meat is white meat of high quality, easily digestible with low fat, low cholesterol and high protein compared to most other meats. It is an excellent source of vitamins B3 and B12, minerals, and trace elements (Phosphorus, Potassium and Selenium) Rabbit meat is an excellent balance of fatty acids, Omega 3 than chicken or pork.


Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, sslc, Science, Solutions, Chapter 12, Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology, biology, tamilnadu board,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in the ______ of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis.
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of:
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate.
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in:
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO2 is fixed
(c) when H2O is splitted
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) when CO2 is fixed

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Cortex lies between ______.
Answer:
Epidermis and endodermis.

Question 2.
Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ______.
Answer:
Conjoint.

Question 3.
Glycolysis takes place in ______.
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 4.
The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is ______.
Answer:
Byproduct.

Question 5.
________ is ATP factory of the cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement

Question 1.
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in a plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.

Question 2.
The waxy protective covering of a plant is called cuticle.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In monocot stem, the cambium is absent in between xylem and phloem.

Question 4.
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot root.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot leaf.

Question 5.
Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Amphicribal(a) Dracaena
2. Cambium(b) Translocation of food
3. Amphivasal(c) Fern
4. Xylem(d) Secondary growth
5. Phloem(e) Conduction of water

Answer:
1. (c) Fem
2. (d) Secondary growth
3. (a) Dracaena
4. (e) Conduction of water
5. (b) Translocation of food.

V. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
When xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery, it is called the collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
Carbondioxide present in atmosphere.

Question 3.
What is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Fermentation (Anaerobic respiration)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give an account on a vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem are:

  • Conjoint: Xylem and phloem lie on the same radius.
  • Collateral: Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
  • Endarch: Protoxylem lies towards the centre and metaxylem lies towards the periphery.
  • Open: The cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.

The vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis in leaf is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

  1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
  2. Ground tissue system
  3. Vascular tissue system

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and wherein a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process in which the green plants use sunlight and the green pigment chlorophyll, to synthesize, nutrients from carbon dioxide from air and water. The photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)
R.Q.= Volume of CO2 liberated  Volume of O2consumed

Question 7.
Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
Answer:
During light dependent reaction photosynthesis pigment absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH2.
During light independent CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of ATP and NADPH2 produced during light dependent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology 2

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the following
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root

Dicot RootMonocot Root
1. The Xylem is Tetrarch1. The Xylem is Polyarch.
2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of parenchyma cells.2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of sclerenchyma cells.
3. The young root contains a path, but in the old root, pith is absent.3. Pith cells are made of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces and contain abundant starch grains.
4. Cambium is present during secondary growth.4. Cambium is absent.
5. Secondary growth is present.5. Secondary growth is absent.

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration

AerobicAnaerobic
1. Occur in the presence of oxygen.1. Occurs, when oxygen is absent.
2. Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.2. Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.
3. It consists of 3 steps:GlycolysisKreb’s cycleElectron transport chain3. It consists of 2 steps:GlycolysisFermentation
(Ethyl alcohol or Lactic acid are produced)

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The three stages of Aerobic respiration are:
(i) Glycolysis (Glucose splitting): It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

(ii) Krebs Cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO2 and water takes place through this cycle. It is also called the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA).

(iii) Electron Transport Chain: This is accomplished through a system of electron carrier complex called electron transport chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH2and FADH2 molecules formed during glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons. As they move, the electron release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesis ATP. This is called oxidative phosphorylation. In this O2 gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light – dependent reaction differ from the light – independent reaction? What are the end products and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light – dependent photosynthesis is called Hill reaction or Light reaction. The Light independent reactions are called Biosynthetic phase.

Light-dependent reactionLight independent reaction
1. It is called Hill reaction or Light reaction.1. It is called Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway or the Calvin cycle.
2. The reaction is carried out in Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast.2. This reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.
3. Photosynthetic pigments absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH2.3. CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH2.
4. It is carried out in the presence of light.4. It is carried out in the absence of light.

In the light – dependent reaction, the chlorophyll absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH2. In the light – independent reaction, CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH2. The light – dependent reaction is carried out in the Grana of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(A) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions?
(B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
(a) Light reactions are carried out in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast which use water and energy from the Sun to produce NADPH, ATP and Oxygen. The Dark reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast. It uses NADPH, ATP and CO2 and produces NADP + ADP + P and high energy sugars.

(b) The Light reactions use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH. The dark reaction or Calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from additional CO2 molecule. This cycle then produces NAP + ADP + P; (inorganic phosphate) which is used in the light reactions, with water molecules to produce ATP and NADPH again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light-dependent reaction takes place in the presence of light energy in thylakoid membranes (grana) of the chloroplast Calvin cycle occurs at the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The father of Plant Anatomy is _____.
(a) Melvin Calvin
(b) C.N.R. Rao
(c) Robin Hill
(d) Nehemiah Grew.
Answer:
(d) Nehemiah Grew.

Question 2.
The passage cells are found in endodermis of:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot stem
(c) dicot root
(d) dicot leaf
Answer:
(c) dicot root

Question 3.
The vascular bundle consists of _____.
(a) Xylem and Phloem
(b) Hypodermis and Endodermis
(c) Cortex and Pericycle
(d) Pith and Stele.
Answer:
(a) Xylem and Phloem

Question 4.
The vascular bundles are skull shaped in:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 5.
The protoxylem lacuna is present in the vascular bundles of:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The epidermis has many minute pores called _____.
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 2.
Epiblema, the outermost layer of the root is called ____ or _____ layer.
Answer:
Rhizodermis or Piliferous.

Question 3.
All the tissues, inner to Endodermis constitute _____.
Answer:
Stele.

Question 4.
______ provides mechanical support to plants.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma.

Question 5.
The barrel-shaped innermost layer of Dicot stem Endodermis is also called _____.
Answer:
Starch Sheath.

Question 6.
Each vascular bundle of monocot stem is surrounded by a few-layer of sclerenchyma cells called _____.
Answer:
Bundle Sheath

Question 7.
______ consists of sieve tubes and elements of companion cells.
Answer:
Phloem.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
Pith is differentiated in monocot stems.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Pith is not differentiated in monocot stems.

Question 2.
In monocot leaves, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Dicot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Monocot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.

Question 4.
The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the stele.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the pericycle.

Question 5.
Cuticle and Stomata are absent in Epiblema of Dicot root.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Leukoplast(a) Photosystems
2. Accessory pigments(b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. Chlorophyll(c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
4. Cristae(d) Colourless plastids
5. Chl.a and Accessory pigments(e) Green pigment

Answer:
1. (d) Colourless plastids
2. (c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
3. (e) Green pigment
4. (b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
5. (a) Photosystems.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Where does the break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide, water and energy takes place?
Answer:
The break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide. water and energy takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 2.
Draw the overview of Hill and Calvin Cycle.
Answer:

Question 3.
Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where it is produced?
Answer:
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is called the energy currency in the living organism. It is produced in mitochondria during the process of respiration.

Question 4.
What are Bulliform cells?
Answer:
Some of the upper epidermal cells of monocot leaves are large and thin-walled. So they are called Bulliform cells.

Question 5.
Label the parts of the transverse section of Dicot Root.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define conjuctive tissue.
Answer:
The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called conjuctive tissue. In monocot the conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue and in dicot it is parenchymatous tissue.

Question 7.
List out the two important factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:

  1. Internal Factors:
    1. Pigments
    2. Leafage
    3. Accumulation of carbohydrates
    4. Hormones
  2. External Factors:
    1. Light
    2. Carbon dioxide
    3. Temperature
    4. Water
    5. Mineral elements

Question 8.
Mention the components and functions of different Tissue Systems.
Answer:

Tissue SystemComponentsFunctions
Dermal Tissue SystemEpidermis and Periderm (in older stems and roots)ProtectionPrevention of water loss
Ground Tissue SystemParenchyma tissueCollenchyma tissueSclerenchyma tissuePhotosynthesisFood storageRegenerationSupportProtection
Vascular Tissue SystemVascular tissuesPhloem tissueXylem tissueTransport of water and mineralsTransport of food

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Label the parts of the Transverse section of a monocot stem.
(b) Mention the differences between Dicot and Monocot stem.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

TissuesDicot StemMonocot stem
1. HypodermiscollenchymatousSclerenchymatous
2. Ground tissueDifferentiated into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pithUndifferentiated
3. Vascular bundlesLess in numberUniform in sizeArranged in a ringOpenBundle sheath absentNumerousSmaller near periphery, bigger in the centreScatteredClosedBundle sheath present
4. Secondary growthPresentMostly absent
5. PithPresentAbsent
6. Medullary raysPresentAbsent

Question 2.
With a labelled diagram, explain the structure and function of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrial Membranes: It consists of two membranes called inner and outer membrane. Each membrane is 60 – 70 A° thick. The outer mitochondrial membrane is smooth and freely permeable to most small molecules. It contains enzymes, proteins and lipids. It has porin molecules (proteins) which form channels for passage of molecules through it.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is semi – permeable membrane and regulates the passage of materials into and out of the mitochondria. It is rich in enzymes and carrier proteins. It consists of 80% of proteins and lipids.

Cristae: The inner mitochondrial membrane gives rise to finger-like projections called cristae. These cristae increase the inner surface area (fold in the inner membrane) of the mitochondria to hold a variety of enzymes.

Oxysomes: The inner mitochondrial membrane bear minute regularly spaced tennis racket shaped particles known as oxysomes (F1 particle). They involve in ATP synthesis.

Mitochondrial matrix: It is a complex mixture of proteins and lipids. The matrix contains enzymes for Krebs cycle, mitochondrial ribosomes(70 S), tRNAs and mitochondrial DNA.

Question 3.
(a) Draw and label the ultrastructure of a chloroplast.
(b) Write the structure and function of the chloroplast.
Answer:
(a) Ultra Structure of a Chloroplast.

(b) Structure and function of Chloroplast.
Chloroplasts are green plastids, containing the green pigment called Chlorophyll. It has the following structures:

  1. Envelope: It has outer and inner membranes, which are separated by intermembrane space.
  2. Stroma: Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma, which contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules needed for protein synthesis.
  3. Thylakoids: It consists of thylakoid membrane that encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoid forms a stack of disc – like structures called granum.
  4. Grana: Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs, stacked one above the other called grana. These stacks are termed as grana, they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Functions:

  • Photosynthesis
  • Storage of starch
  • Synthesis of fatty acids
  • Storage of lipids
  • Formation of chloroplasts.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What are non – green plants? Give an example.
Answer:
The plants, which do not have the green pigment, Chlorophyll and so they cannot prepare their food independently are called non-green plants. Eg. Orchids lack Chlorophyll.

Question 2.
Protophloem is the first formed phloem. If the protophloem surrounds by xylem, what kind of arrangement of phloem would you call it Give example.
Answer:
If the protophloem is surrounded by xylem the vascular bundle is said to be Concentric Amphivasal Vascular bundles. Eg: Dracaena

Question 3.
How does photosynthesis take place on plants that have, red, brown and yellow leaves, and are not green? How do they prepare food?
Answer:
These leaves have a much larger concentration of chromoplasts, which synthesize and store pigments such as orange carotenes, yellow xanthophylls and other red pigments. But these leaves, still possess chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ and can synthesize food. But these leaves have more chromoplasts and so the leaves do not appear green. Yet they can prepare food.

Question 4.
The cross-section of a plant material shown the following features on viewing under the microscope.
(a) Radially arranged Vascular bundles
(b) Xylem is exarch and polyarch
(c) Metaxylem is polygonal in shape.
Identify the slide.
Answer:
The given features are characters of dicot root.


10th, Tamil, Solutions, samacheer kalvi, Chapter 5.5, வினா, விடை வகைகள், பொருள்கோள்,

Question 1.

வினா வகையையும் விடை வகையையும் சுட்டுக.

Answer:

“காமராசர் நகர் எங்கே இருக்கிறது?” “இந்த வழியாகச் செல்லுங்கள்.” – என்று விடையளிப்பது.

காமராசர் நகர் எங்கே இருக்கிறது? – அறியாவினா

‘இந்த வழியாகச் செல்லுங்கள் ‘ என்று விடையளிப்பது. – சுட்டுவிடை

“எனக்கு எழுதித் தருகிறாயா?” என்ற வினாவுக்கு, “எனக்கு யார் எழுதித் தருவார்கள்?” என்று விடையளிப்பது.

எனக்கு யார் எழுதித்தருவார்கள் என்று விடையளிப்பது. – வினா எதிர்வினாதல்

Question 2.

உரையாடலில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ள வினாவிடை வகைகளைக் கண்டு எழுதுக.

பாமகள் : வணக்கம் ஆதிரை! ஏதோ எழுதுகிறீர்கள் போலிருக்கிறதே? (அறியா வினா)

ஆதிரை : ஆமாம்! கவியரங்கத்துக்குக் கவிதை எழுதிக் கொண்டிருக்கிறேன். (…………………….)

பாமகள் : அப்படியா! என்ன தலைப்பு? (…………………….)

ஆதிரை : கல்வியில் சிறக்கும் தமிழர்! (…………………….)

நீங்கள் கவியரங்கத்துக்கு எல்லாம் வருவீர்களா? மாட்டீர்களா? (…………………….)

பாமகள் : ஏன் வராமல்? (…………………..)

Answer:

பாமகள் : வணக்கம் ஆதிரை! ஏதோ எழுதுகிறீர்கள் போலிருக்கிறதே? (அறியா வினா)

ஆதிரை : ஆமாம்! கவியரங்கத்துக்குக் கவிதை எழுதிக் கொண்டிருக்கிறேன். (நேர் விடை)

பாமகள் : அப்படியா! என்ன தலைப்பு? (அறியா வினா)

ஆதிரை : கல்வியில் சிறக்கும் தமிழர்! (நேர் விடை)

நீங்கள் கவியரங்கத்துக்கு எல்லாம் வருவீர்களா? மாட்டீர்களா? (ஐய வினா)

பாமகள் : ஏன் வராமல்? (வினா எதிர் வினாதல்)

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

மொழிபெயர்ப்பு

ஆங்கிலச் சொற்களுக்கு நிகரான தமிழ்ச் சொற்களைக் கவிதையில் கண்டு எழுதுக.

1.

2.

3.

4.


தொடர்களில் உள்ள எழுவாயைச் செழுமை செய்க.

கடம்பவனத்தை விட்டு இறைவன் நீங்கினான்

எ.கா: அழகிய குளிர்ந்த கடம்பவனத்தை விட்டு இறைவன் நீங்கினான்.

1. மரத்தை வளர்ப்பது நன்மை பயக்கும்

Answer:

பயன்தரும் மரத்தை வளர்ப்பது நன்மை பயக்கும்

2. வாழ்க்கைப்பயணமே வேறுபட்ட பாடங்களைக் கற்றுத் தருகிறது.

Answer:

இன்பமும் துன்பமும் நிறைந்த வாழ்க்கைப் பயணமே வேறுபட்ட பாடங்களைக் கற்றுத் தருகிறது.

3. கல்வியே ஒருவர்க்கு உயர்வு தரும்.

Answer:

நன்னெறிக் கல்வியே உயர்வு தரும்.

4. குழந்தைகள் தனித்தனியே எழுதித்தர வேண்டும்.

Answer:

படைப்புத்திறன் மிக்க குழந்தைகள் தனித்தனியே எழுதித்தர வேண்டும்.

மதிப்புரை எழுதுக.

பள்ளி ஆண்டுவிழா மலருக்காக, நீங்கள் நூலகத்தில் படித்த கதை / கட்டுரை / சிறுகதை /கவிதை நூலுக்கான மதிப்புரை எழுதுக.

குறிப்பு: நூலின் தலைப்பு – நூலின் மையப்பொருள் மொழிநடை வெளிப்படுத்தும் கருத்து – நூலின் நயம் – நூல் கட்டமைப்பு – சிறப்புக் கூறு – நூல் ஆசிரியர்

நூலின் தலைப்பு : சந்தித்ததும் சிந்தித்ததும் (கதை)

நூலின் மையப்பொருள்:

வாழ்வில் ஒவ்வொரு நாளும் பலவிதமான மனிதர்களைச் சந்திக்கிறோம். நாம் அவர்களிடம் கற்றுக்கொண்ட பாடம் என்ன என்பதே மையப்பொருள்.

மொழிநடை:

வாசகர் வாசிப்புக்கு ஏற்றநடையில் இலகுவான முறையில் ஆங்கில மேற்கோளுடன் அமைந்த நூல். தெளிந்த நீரோடையினைப் போல கதையின் சொற்றொடர்கள் பொருள் தெளிவுடன் செல்கின்றது.

வெளிப்படுத்தும் கருத்து:

நம்மை வியக்க, விம்ம செய்கின்ற வகையில் நம்மை நாமே பரிசோதனை செய்து, தூண்டும் வகையில் மனதை உருக்கும் வகையில் பதிவு செய்துள்ளார். மானுடர்கள் இன்றைய நிலையில் எப்படி வாழவேண்டும்? எத்தகைய புரிதல்கள் தேவை? தன்னம்பிக்கையும் முயற்சியும் எவ்வாறு வெற்றி தரும்? ஆகிய நற்கருத்துகளை இந்நூல் வெளிப்படுத்துகின்றது.

நூலின் நயம்:

படிக்க விறுவிறுப்பாக, படித்தவுடன் தெளிவடையும் எதுகை, மோனையோடு அமைந்துள்ளது. எளிமையான சொற்கள், எதார்த்தமான கருத்துகள், உன்னதமான நீதிகள், உணர்வான சான்றுகள், சிந்திக்க வைக்கும் உணர்ச்சிப் பெருக்கு ஆகியவை நூலின் நயத்திற்குச் சான்றாகும்.

நூலின் கட்டமைப்பு:

மங்கையர் மலரில் 50 கட்டுரைகளாக வெளிவந்த நூல். மொத்தம் 200 பக்கங்களைக் கொண்டு விஜயா பதிப்பகத்தால் பதிக்கப்பட்டது. அழகிய சிந்தனையைத் தூண்டும் அட்டைப்படம், பார்வைக்கு எளிய, சிறப்பான கட்டமைப்பு கொண்டது இந்நூல்.

சிறப்புக்கூறு:

“ஆரோக்கியமான பார்வையோடு உலகத்தைப் பார்த்தால் அத்தனை மனிதர்களுமே சுவாரசியத்துக்குப் பஞ்சமில்லாதவர்கள்; உண்மை நமக்குப் புரியும்” என்கிறார் ஆசிரியர். மேலும், “தன்னம்பிக்கை இருந்தால் போதும் தரணியையே ஆளலாம்” என்ற உட்கருத்து மிகச்சிறப்பாகும்.

நூல் ஆசிரியர் :

வெ. இறையன்பு.

வாழ்க்கைக்கு வழிகாட்டும் கருத்துகளை எளிமையாகவும், தெளிவாகவும் கட்டுரையாக்கும் வல்லவர், ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அதிகாரியும் ஆவார்.

படிவத்தை நிரப்புக

5.

6.

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

புதிர்ப்பாடலைப் படித்து விடையைக் கண்டுபிடிக்க.

தார் போன்ற நிறமுண்டு கரியுமில்லை

பார் முழுவதும் பறந்து திரிவேன் மேகமுமில்லை

சேர்ந்து அமர்ந்து ஒலிப்பேன் பள்ளியுமில்லை

சோர்ந்து போகாமல் வீடமைப்பேன் பொறியாளருமில்லை

வீட்டுக்கு வருமுன்னே வருவதைக் கூறுவேன். நான் யார்?

Answer:

காகம்

தொழிற்பெயர்களின் பொருளைப் புரிந்துகொண்டு தொடர்களை முழுமை செய்க.

1. நிலத்துக்கு அடியில் கிடைக்கும்………………….. யாவும் அரசுக்கே சொந்தம் நெகிழிப் பொருள்களை மண்ணுக்கு அடியில் ………………….. நிலத்தடி நீர் வளத்தைக் குன்றச் செய்யும். (புதைத்தல் / புதையல்)

2. காட்டு விலங்குகளைச் ………………….. தடை செய்யப்பட்டுள்ளது செய்த தவறுகளைச் …………………..திருந்த உதவுகிறது. (சுட்டல் / சுடுதல்)

3. காற்றின் மெல்லிய………………….. பூக்களைத் தலையாட்ட வைக்கிறது, கைகளில் நேர்த்தியான ………………….. பூக்களை மாலையாக்குகிறது. (தொடுத்தல் /தொடுதல்)

4. பசுமையான ………………….. ஐக் ………………….. கண்ணுக்கு நல்லது.(காணுதல் /காட்சி)

5. பொது வாழ்வில் ………………….. கூடாது. ………………….. இல் அவரை மிஞ்ச ஆள் கிடையாது. (நடித்தல் / நடிப்பு)

Answer:

1. நிலத்துக்கு அடியில் கிடைக்கும் புதையல் யாவும் அரசுக்கே சொந்தம் நெகிழிப் பொருள்களை மண்ணுக்கு அடியில் புதைத்தல் நிலத்தடி நீர் வளத்தைக் குன்றச் செய்யும். (புதைத்தல் / புதையல்)

2. காட்டு விலங்குகளைச் சுடுதல் தடை செய்யப்பட்டுள்ளது செய்த தவறுகளைச் சுட்டல் திருந்த உதவுகிறது. (சுட்டல் / சுடுதல்)

3. காற்றின் மெல்லிய தொடுதல் பூக்களைத் தலையாட்ட வைக்கிறது, கைகளில் நேர்த்தியான தொடுத்தல் பூக்களை மாலையாக்குகிறது. (தொடுத்தல் /தொடுதல்)

4. பசுமையான காட்சி ஐக் காணுதல் கண்ணுக்கு நல்லது.(காணுதல் /காட்சி)

5. பொது வாழ்வில் நடித்தல் கூடாது. நடிப்பு இல் அவரை மிஞ்ச ஆள் கிடையாது. (நடித்தல் / நடிப்பு)

அகராதியில் காண்க.

மன்றல் திருமணம்

அடிச் சுவடு – காலடிக்குறி

அகராதி – அகரவரிசை சொற்பொருள் நூல்

தூவல் – 1 மழை / நீர்த்துளி

மருள் – மயக்கம்

செயல் திட்டம்

“பள்ளியைத் தூய்மையாக வைத்திருத்தல்” – குறித்த செயல்திட்ட வரைவு முறை ஒன்றை உருவாக்கித் தலைமை ஆசிரியரின் ஒப்புதலுடன் நடைமுறைப்படுத்துக.

Answer:

அனுப்புநர்

பத்தாம் வகுப்பு மாணவர்கள்,

அரசு உயர்நிலைப்பள்ளி,

சென்னை – 18.

பெறுநர்

தலைமையாசிரியர் அவர்கள்,

அரசு உயர்நிலைப்பள்ளி,

சென்னை – 18.

ஐயா,

பொருள்: பள்ளித் தூய்மை குறித்த செயல் திட்ட வரைவு ஒப்புதல் வழங்கி செயல்படுத்த

வேண்டுதல் – சார்பாக.

வணக்கம். நாங்கள் நம் பள்ளியில் பத்தாம் வகுப்பு படித்து வருகிறோம். கடந்த 4 ஆண்டுகளாக நம் பள்ளியை நன்கு கவனித்து வருகிறோம். அதன் மூலம் நம் பள்ளி மாணவர்களின் கற்றல் அடைவுகளுக்குத் தடையாக இருக்கும் காரணிகளைப் பற்றி ஆய்வு செய்து வந்தோம். அவற்றை ஒரு செயல்திட்டமாக தயாரித்து தங்கள் பார்வைக்கு அனுப்பி உள்ளோம். அதன் பரிந்துரைகளை ஆராய்ந்து அதற்கு ஒப்புதல் வழங்கி நம் பள்ளியில் செயல்படுத்தி மாணவர்களாகிய எங்கள் கல்வி நலனையும் வருங்கால தலைமுறையினரின் கல்வி நலனையும் காக்குமாறு பணிவுடன் வேண்டுகிறோம்.

நன்றி

இடம் : சென்னை

நாள் : 13.03.2020

இப்படிக்கு,

அரசு உயர்நிலைப்பள்ளி மாணவர்கள்.


பள்ளித் தூய்மை

நல்ல நீரும் நல்ல காற்றும் சூழலுமே வாழ்விற்கு ஆதாரம். அந்த வகையில் மாணவராகிய நாங்கள் தலைமை ஆசிரியர் ஒப்புதலோடு பின்வரும் செயல்திட்டங்களை மேற்கொள்ள உள்ளோம்.

  • வகுப்பறையில் உணவுக்கழிவுகளைப் போடாது இருத்தல்.
  • குப்பைத்தொட்டிகளை உலர வைத்துப் பயன்படுத்துதல்.
  • கழிப்பறைகளைத் தூய்மையாக வைத்தல்.
  • பாதுகாக்கப்பட்ட தூய்மையான நீரைக் குடித்தல்.

மேற்கண்ட செயல்திட்டங்களை நடைமுறைப்படுத்தி பள்ளியையும், பாரதத்தையும் தூய்மையாக்கித் தூய்மை இந்தியாவை உருவாக்குவோம்.

காட்சியைக் கவிதையாக்குக.

7.

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக

8

9.

10.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

  • Emblem – சின்னம்
  • Thesis – ஆய்வேடு
  • Intellectual – அறிவாளர்
  • symbolism – குறியீட்டியல்

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.

“இங்கு நகரப் பேருந்து நிற்குமா?” என்று வழிப்போக்கர் கேட்டது. …………… வினா. ‘அதோ அங்கே நிற்கும்’ என்று மற்றொருவர் கூறியது ………………விடை

அ) ஐயவினா, வினா எதிர் வினாதல்

ஆ) அறிவினா, மறைவிடை

இ) அறியாவினா, சுட்டுவிடை

ஈ) கொளல் வினா, இனமொழி விடை

Answer:

இ) அறியாவினா, சுட்டுவிடை


குறுவினா

Question 1.

இந்த அறை இருட்டாக இருக்கிறது. மின்விளக்கின் சொடுக்கி எந்தப்பக்கம் இருக்கிறது? இதோ.

இருக்கிறது! சொடுக்கியைப் போட்டாலும் வெளிச்சம் வரவில்லையே! மின்சாரம் இருக்கிறதா, இல்லையா? மேற்கண்ட உரையாடலில் உள்ள வினாக்களின் வகைகளை எடுத்தெழுதுக.

Answer:

அ) மின்விளக்கின் சொடுக்கி எந்தப்பக்கம் இருக்கிறது?

– அறியாவினா

ஆ) இதோ…. இருக்கிறதே!

சுட்டு விடை

இ) சொடுக்கியைப் போட்டாலும் வெளிச்சம் வரவில்லையே! மின்சாரம் இருக்கிறதா, இல்லையா?

ஐயவினா


சிறுவினா

Question 1.

முயற்சி திருவினை ஆக்கும் முயற்றின்மை

இன்மை புகுத்தி விடும்.

Answer:

இக்குறட்பாவில் அமைந்துள்ள பொருள்கோளின் வகையைச் சுட்டி விளக்குக.

இப்பாடலில் அமைந்துள்ள பொருள்கோள் ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்.

பொருள்கோள் இலக்கணம்:

பாடலின் தொடக்கம் முதல் முடிவு வரை ஆற்றுநீரின் போக்கைப் போல நேராகவே பொருள் கொள்ளுமாறு அமைதல் ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்.

பொருள்கோள் விளக்கம் :

இப்பாடலில் முயற்சி செல்வத்தைத் தரும்; முயற்சி செய்யாமை வறுமையைத் தரும் என்று பாடலின் தொடக்கம் முதல் முடிவு வரை நேராகப் பொருள் கொள்ளும் முறையில் அமைந்திருப்பதால் இது ஆற்று நீர்ப்பொருள்கோள் ஆயிற்று.


கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.

தான் அறியாத ஒன்றை அறிந்து கொள்வதற்காக வினவுவது ……………………………..

அ) அறிவினா

ஆ) அறியாவினா

இ) ஐயவினா

ஈ) ஏவல் வினா

Answer:

ஆ) அறியாவினா

Question 2.

பிறருக்குப் பொருளைக் கொடுத்து உதவும் பொருட்டு வினவுவது ……………………………..

அ) ஏவல் வினா

ஆ) கொளல் வினா

இ) ஐய வினா

ஈ) கொடை வினா

Answer:

ஈ) கொடை வினா

Question 3.

மாட்டேன் என்று மறுப்பதை ஏவுதலாகக் கூறும் விடை ……………………………..

அ) மறைவிடை

ஆ) இனமொழிவிடை

இ) நேர்விடை

ஈ) ஏவல்விடை

Answer:

ஈ) ஏவல்விடை

Question 4.

வினாவிற்கு விடையாக இனிமேல் நேர்வதைக் கூறுவது ……………………………..

அ) உறுவது கூறல் விடை

ஆ) உற்றது உறைத்தல் விடை

இ) இனமொழி விடை

ஈ) வினா எதிர் வினாதல் விடை

Answer:

அ) உறுவது கூறல் விடை

Question 5.

உடன்பட்டுக் கூறும் விடை ……………………………..

அ) சுட்டுவிடை

ஆ) மறைவிடை

இ) நேர்விடை

ஈ) ஏவல்விடை

Answer:

இ) நேர்விடை

Question 6.

வினாவிற்கு வினாவை திரும்பக் கேட்பது ……………………………..

அ) ஏவல் விடை

ஆ) வினா எதிர்வினாதல் விடை

இ) மறைவிடை

ஈ) நேர்வினா

Answer:

ஆ) வினா எதிர்வினாதல் விடை

Question 7.

மறுத்துக் கூறும் விடை ……………………………..

அ) சுட்டு விடை

ஆ) மறைவிடை

இ) ஏவல்விடை

ஈ) நேர் விடை

Answer:

ஆ) மறைவிடை

Question 8.

ஆடத்தெரியுமா என்ற வினாவிற்குப் பாடத்தெரியும் என்று கூறுவது……………………………..

அ) வினாஎதிர் வினாதல்

ஆ) உற்றது உரைத்தல்

இ) உறுவது கூறல்

ஈ) இனமொழி விடை

Answer:

ஈ) இனமொழி விடை

Question 9.

ஊருக்கு வருவாயா? என்ற வினாவிற்கு வராமல் இருப்பேனா? என்று கூறுவது என்ன விடை?

அ) வினாஎதிர் வினாதல் விடை

ஆ) உற்றது உரைத்தல் விடை

இ) உறுவது கூறல் விடை

ஈ) இனமொழி விடை

Answer:

அ) வினாஎதிர் வினாதல் விடை

Question 10.

ஆசிரியர் மாணவனிடம் இப்பாடலின் பொருள் யாது?

அ) அறிவினா

ஆ) ஐயவினா

இ) அறியாவினா

ஈ) கொளல்வினா

Answer:

அ) அறிவினா

Question 11.

மாணவன் ஆசிரியரிடம் இப்பாடலின் பொருள் யாது என வினவுவது ……………………………..

அ) அறிவினா

ஆ) அறியாவினா

இ) ஐயவினா

ஈ) ஏவல்வினா

Answer:

ஆ) அறியாவினா

Question 12.

இச்செயலைச் செய்தது மங்கையா? மணிமேகலையா?

அ) அறிவினா

ஆ) அறியாவினா

இ) ஐயவினா

ஈ) ஏவல்வினா

Answer:

இ) ஐயவினா

Question 13.

ஐயம் நீங்கித் தெளிவு பெறுவதற்காகக் கேட்கப்படுவது ……………………………..

அ) அறிவினா

ஆ) அறியாவினா

இ) ஐயவினா

ஈ) ஏவல்வினா

Answer:

இ) ஐயவினா

Question 14.

வினா ……………………………..வகைப்படும்.

அ) நான்கு

ஆ) ஐந்து

இ) ஆறு

ஈ) ஏழு

Answer:

இ) ஆறு

Question 15.

‘என்னிடம் பாரதிதாசன் கவிதைகள் இரண்டு படிகள் உள்ளன. உன்னிடம் பாரதிதாசனின் கவிதைகள் இருக்கிறதா? என்று கொடுப்பதற்காக வினவுவது ……………………………..

அ) கொளல் வினா

ஆ) ஐய வினா

இ) கொடை வினா

ஈ) ஏவல் வினா

Answer:

இ) கொடை வினா

Question 16.

“வீட்டில் தக்காளி இல்லை, நீ கடைக்குச் செல்கிறாயா? என்று அக்கா தம்பியிடம் வினவி வேலையைச்

சொல்வது

அ) ஐயவினா

ஆ) அறியாவினா

இ) கொளல் வினா

ஈ) ஏவல் வினா

Answer:

ஈ) ஏவல் வினா

Question 17.

விடை …………………………….. வகைப்படும்.

அ) ஆறு

ஆ) ஏழு

இ) எட்டு

ஈ) ஒன்பது

Answer:

இ) எட்டு

Question 18.

வெளிப்படை விடைகளில் பொருந்தாததைக் கண்டறிக.

அ) சுட்டு விடை

ஆ) மறை விடை

இ) நேர் விடை

ஈ) ஏவல் விடை

Answer:

ஈ) ஏவல் விடை

Question 19.

நேரடி விடைகளாக இருக்கும் வெளிப்படை விடைகள் எத்தனை?

அ) மூன்று

ஆ) நான்கு

இ) ஐந்து

ஈ) ஆறு

Answer:

அ) மூன்று

Question 20.

குறிப்பு விடைகளாக இருக்கும் குறிப்பு விடைகள் எத்தனை?

அ) மூன்று

ஆ) நான்கு

இ) ஐந்து

ஈ) ஆறு

Answer:

இ) ஐந்து

Question 21.

குறிப்பு விடைகளில் பொருந்தாததைக் கண்டறிக.

அ) நேர் விடை

ஆ) ஏவல் விடை

இ) உறுவது கூறல்

ஈ) இனமொழி

Answer:

அ) நேர் விடை

Question 22.

செய்யுளில் சொற்களைப் பொருளுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு சேர்த்தோ மாற்றியோ பொருள் கொள்ளும் முறைக்கு ……………………………..என்று பெயர்.

அ) பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) வழாநிலை

இ) அணி

ஈ) வழுவமைதி

Answer:

அ) பொருள்கோள்

Question 23.

பொருள்கோள்…………………………….. வகைப்படும்.

அ) 6

ஆ) 7

இ) 8

ஈ) 9

Answer:

இ) 8

Question 24.

பாடலின் தொடக்கம் முதல் முடிவு வரை நேராகவே பொருள் கொள்ளுமாறு அமைவது …………………………….. ஆகும்.

அ) ஆற்று நீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

இ) கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்

ஈ) மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்

Answer:

அ) ஆற்று நீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்

Question 25.

ஒரு செய்யுளில் சொற்கள் முறையே பிறழாமல் நிரல் நிறையாக அமைந்து வருவது……………………………..

அ) நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) விற்பூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்

இ) ஆற்று நீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்

ஈ) மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்

Answer:

அ) நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

Question 26.

நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள் ……………………………..வகைப்படும்.

அ) இரு

ஆ) மூன்று

இ) நான்கு

ஈ) ஆறு

Answer:

அ) இரு

Question 27.

செய்யுளில் எழுவாயாக அமையும் பெயர்ச்சொற்களை அல்லது வினைச் சொற்களை வரிசையாக நிறுத்தி, அவை ஏற்கும் பயனிலைகளையும் அவ்வரிசைப்படியே நிறுத்திப் பொருள் கொள்ளுதல் ……………………………..ஆகும்.

அ) விற்பூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) முறை நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

இ) எதிர் நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

ஈ) மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்

Answer:

ஆ) முறை நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

Question 28.

செய்யுளில் எழுவாய்களை வரிசைப்படுத்தி அவை ஏற்கும் பயனிலைகளை எதிர் எதிராகக் கொண்டு

பொருள் கொள்ளுதல் ……………………………..ஆகும்.

அ) விற்பூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) முறை நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

இ) எதிர் நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

ஈ) மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்

Answer:

இ) எதிர் நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

Question 29.

ஒரு செய்யுளில் பல அடிகளில் சிதறிக் கிடக்கும் சொற்களைப் பொருளுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு ஒன்றோடொன்று

கூட்டிப் பொருள் கொள்வது ……………………………..ஆகும்.

அ) கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்

ஆ) ஆற்று நீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்

இ) மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்

ஈ) நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

Answer:

அ) கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்


குறுவினா

Question 1.

வினா எத்தனை வகைப்படும் அவை யாவை?

Answer:

அறிவினா, அறியாவினா, ஐயவினா, கொளல் வினா, கொடை வினா, ஏவல் வினா, என்று வினா ஆறு வகைப்படும்

Question 2.

அறிவினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

தான் விடை அறிந்திருந்தும், அவ்விடை பிறருக்குத் தெரியுமா என்பதை அறியும் பொருட்டு வினவுவது அறிவினா எனப்படும்.

சான்று: மாணவரிடம் இந்தக் கவிதையின் பொருள் யாது?’ என்று ஆசிரியர் கேட்டல்.

Question 3.

அறியா வினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

தான் அறியாத ஒன்றை அறிந்து கொள்வதற்காக வினவுவது அறியா வினா ஆகும். சான்று: ஆசிரியரிடம் இந்தக் கவிதையின் பொருள் யாது?’ என்று மாணவன் கேட்பது.

Question 4.

ஐய வினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

ஐயம் நீங்கித் தெளிவு பெறுவதற்காகக் கேட்கப்படுவது ஐய வினா ஆகும்.

சான்று: இப்படத்தை வரைந்தது மங்கையா? மணிமேகலையா? என வினவுதல்.

Question 5.

கொளல் வினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

தான் ஒரு பொருளை வாங்கிக் கொள்ளும் பொருட்டு வினவுவது கொளல்வினா எனப்படும்.

சான்று: பத்தாம் வகுப்பு தமிழ் புத்தகம் இருக்கிறதா? என்று கடைக்காரரிடம் வினவுவது.

Question 6.

கொடை வினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

பிறருக்கு ஒரு பொருளைக் கொடுத்து உதவும் பொருட்டு வினவுவது கொடை வினா எனப்படும். சான்று: என்னிடம் பாரதிதாசன் கவிதைகள் இரண்டு படிகள் உள்ளன. உன்னிடம் பாரதிதாசனின் கவிதைகள் இருக்கிறதா? என்று கொடுப்பதற்காக வினவுதல்.

Question 7.

ஏவல் வினா என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

ஒரு செயலைச் செய்யுமாறு வினவுவது ஏவல் வினா எனப்படும்.

சான்று: வீட்டில் தக்காளி இல்லை நீ கடைக்குச் செல்கிறாயா? என்று அக்கா தம்பியிடம் வினவி வேலையை சொல்லுதல்.

Question 8.

விடை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?

Answer:

சுட்டு விடை, மறைவிடை, நேர்விடை, ஏவல் விடை, வினா எதிர்வினாதல் விடை, உற்றது உரைத்தல் விடை, உறுவது கூறல் விடை, இனமொழி விடை, என்று விடை எட்டு வகைப்படும்.

Question 9.

வெளிப்படை விடைகள் எத்தனை வகை? அவை யாவை?

Answer:

சுட்டு விடை, மறை விடை, நேர் விடை ஆகிய மூன்றும் நேரடி விடைகளாக இருப்பதால் அவை வெளிப்படை விடைகள் ஆகும்.

Question 10.

குறிப்பு விடைகள் எத்தனை? அவை யாவை?

Answer:

ஏவல் விடை, வினா எதிர் வினாதல் விடை, உற்றது உரைத்தல் விடை, உறுவது கூறல் விடை, இனமொழி விடை, ஆகிய ஐந்து விடைகளும் குறிப்பாக விடையை உணர்த்துவதால் இவை குறிப்பு விடைகளாகும்.

Question 11.

சுட்டுவிடை

Answer:

‘கடைத்தெரு எங்கு உள்ளது?’ என்ற வினாவிற்கு வலப்பக்கத்தில் உள்ளது’ என்று சுட்டிக் காட்டும் விடை சுட்டுவிடை எனப்படும்.

Question 12.

மறை விடை என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

கடைக்குப் போவாயா?’ என்ற வினாவிற்குப் போகமாட்டேன்’ என மறுத்துக் கூறுவது மறைவிடை எனப்படும்.

Question 13.

நேர் விடை என்றால் என்ன? ‘கடைக்குப் போவாயா?’

Answer:

என்ற வினாவிற்குப் போவேன்’ என்று உடன்பட்டு விடையளிப்பது நேர்விடை எனப்படும்

Question 14.

ஏவல் விடை என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

இது செய்வாயா?’ என்ற வினாவிற்கு நீயே செய்’ என்று மாட்டேன் என்று மறுப்பதை ஏவுதலாகக் கூறும் விடை ஏவல் விடை எனப்படும்.

Question 15.

வினா எதிர் வினாதல் விடை என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

வினாவிற்கு விடையாக இன்னொரு வினாவைக் கேட்பது வினா எதிர் வினாதல் விடை ஆகும்.

சான்று: என்னுடன் ஊருக்கு வருவாயா? என்ற வினாவிற்கு வராமல் இருப்பேனா என்று கூறுவது.

Question 16.

உற்றது உரைத்தல் விடையைக் கூறுக.

Answer:

‘நீ விளையாடவில்லையா?’ என்ற வினாவிற்குக் கால் வலிக்கிறது’ என்று ஏற்கனவே நேர்ந்ததை விடையாகக் கூறுவது உற்றது உரைத்தல் விடை எனப்படும்.

Question 17.

உறுவது கூறல் விடை என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

‘நீ விளையாடவில்லையா?’ என்ற வினாவிற்குக் கால் வலிக்கும்’ என்று இனிமேல் நேர்வதை விடையாகக் கூறுவது உறுவது கூறல் எனப்படும்.

Question 18.

இனமொழி விடை என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

‘உனக்குக் கதை எழுதத் தெரியுமா?’ என்ற வினாவிற்குக் கட்டுரை எழுதத் தெரியும்’ என்று அதற்கு இனமான மற்றொன்றை விடையாகக் கூறுவது இனமொழிவிடை எனப்படும்.

Question 19.

பொருள்கோள் என்றால் என்ன?

Answer:

செய்யுளில் சொற்களைப் பொருளுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு சேர்த்தோ மாற்றியோ பொருள் கொள்ளும் முறைக்குப் பொருள்கோள் என்று பெயர்.

Question 20.

பொருள்கோள் எத்தனை வகைப்படும். அவை யாவை?

Answer:

பொருள் கோள் எட்டு வகைப்படும். அவை:

  • ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்
  • தாப்பிசைப் பொருள்கோள்
  • மொழிமாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்
  • அளைமறி பாப்புப் பொருள்கோள்
  • நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்
  • கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்
  • விற்பூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்
  • அடிமறி மாற்றுப் பொருள்கோள்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.

முறைநிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோளை விவரிக்க.

Answer:

பொருள்கோள் இலக்கணம்:

செய்யுளில் எழுவாயாக அமையும் பெயர்ச்சொற்களை அல்லது வினைச் சொற்களை வரிசையாக நிறுத்தி அவை ஏற்கும் பயனிலைகளையும் அவ்வரிசைப்படியே நிறுத்திப் பொருள் கொள்ளுதல் “முறை நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்” ஆகும்.

சான்று:

அன்பும் அறனும் உடைத்தாயின் இல்வாழ்க்கை

பண்பும் பயனும் அது. (குறள்)

விளக்கம்:

இல்வாழ்க்கை அன்பும் அறனும் உடையதாக விளங்குமானால் அந்த வாழ்க்கை பண்பும் பயனும் உடையதாக அமையும்.

இக்குறளில் பண்பு, பயன் இருசொற்களை வரிசைப்படுத்தி அவற்றின் விளைவுகளாக அன்பு அறன் என்று வரிசைப்படுத்தியுள்ளார். இல்வாழ்க்கையின் பண்பு, அன்பு என்றும், அதன் பயன் அறன் என்றும் பொருள்கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

அன்புக்கு – பண்பும், அறத்துக்கு – பயன் என்று நிரல் நிரையாக நிறுத்திப் பொருள் கொள்வதால் “முறை நிரல் நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்” ஆகும்.

Question 2.

எதிர் நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோளை விவரிக்க.

Answer:

பொருள்கோள் இலக்கணம்:

செய்யுளில் எழுவாய்களை வரிசைப்படுத்தி அவை ஏற்கும் பயனிலைகளை எதிர் எதிராகக் கொண்டு பொருள் கொள்ளுதல் “எதிர் நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்” ஆகும்.

சான்று:

விலங்கொடு மக்கள் அனையர் இலங்குநூல்

கற்றோரோடு ஏனை யவர் (குறள்)

விளக்கம் :

மனிதர்களுக்கும் விலங்குகளுக்குமிடையே என்ன வேற்றுமையோ அதே அளவு வேற்றுமை கற்றவருக்கும், கல்லாதவருக்கும் இடையே உண்டு. இப்பாடலில் விலங்கு மக்கள் என்ற எழுவாய்களை முதல் அடியில் வரிசைப்பட நிறுத்தி விட்டு கற்றார், கல்லாதவர் (ஏனை) என்ற பயனிலைகளை அடுத்த வரிசையில் நிறுத்தி விட்டுப் பொருள் கொள்ளும்போது கற்றார் மக்கள் என்றும், கல்லாதார் விலங்கு என்றும் பயனிலைகளை எதிர் எதிராக மாற்றிப் பொருள் கொள்ளும் முறை “எதிர் நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்” ஆகும்.


Chapter 5.4, புதியநம்பிக்கை, ssc, tamilnadu board, samacheer kalvi,

Question 1.

கல்வி வாய்ப்பற்ற சூழலில் ஒற்றைச் சுடராக வந்து ஒளியேற்றினார் மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன், அதுபோலத் தமிழகத்தில் கல்வி வாய்ப்பற்றவர்களின் வாழ்வில் முதற்சுடர் ஏற்றியவர்களுள் யாரேனும் ஒருவர் குறித்த செய்திகளைத் தொகுத்துச் சில படங்களுடன் குறும்புத்தகம் ஒன்றைக் குழுவாக உருவாக்குக.

Answer:

இளமை:

  • 20.5.1845ல் கோவை அரசம்பாளையத்தில் பிறந்தார்.
  • இயற்பெயர் : காத்தவராயன்
  • தந்தை : கந்தசாமி
  • தன் ஆசிரியர் மீதுள்ள பற்றின் காரணமாக அவர் பெயராகிய அயோத்திதாசர் என்பதைத் தன் பெயராக மாற்றிக்கொண்டார்.

கல்விப் பணி:

தாழ்த்தப்பட்ட குழந்தைகளுக்குக் கல்வி மறுக்கப்பட்ட காலத்தில் அயோத்திதாசர் அயோத்திதாசர் பிரம்ம ஞான சபை ஆல்காட் தொடர்பால், சென்னையில் முக்கியமான ஐந்து இடங்களில் பஞ்சமர் பள்ளிகள் எனத் தாழ்த்தப்பட்ட மக்களுக்கு இலவசப் பள்ளிகளை நிறுவி சிறந்த கல்வியினை வழங்கினார்.

சமூகப்பணி:

தாழ்த்தப்பட்ட மக்களுக்கு அரும்பாடுபட்டவர். தாழ்த்தப்பட்ட மக்களுக்குக் கல்வி வசதியோடு கல்வி உதவித்தொகை கிடைக்கவும் ஏற்பாடு செய்தார். கல்வியில் தேர்ச்சி பெற்ற தாழ்த்தப்பட்ட மக்களுக்கு அரசு வேலையும் உள்ளாட்சி அமைப்புகளில் வாய்ப்பும் வழங்கச் செய்தார்.

படைப்புகள்:

புத்தரது ஆதிவேதம், திருவாசக உரை, ஒருபைசாத் தமிழன் இதழ்.

Question 2.

கல்விக் கண் திறந்தவர்களுக்கிடையில் கைவிடப்பட்ட பெண்களுக்காக உழைத்த தமிழகத்தின் முதல் பெண் மருத்துவர் முத்துலெட்சுமி பற்றிய ஒரு தொகுப்பேட்டினை உருவாக்கி வகுப்பறையில் காட்சிப்படுத்துக.

Answer:


பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

நெடுவினா

Question 1.

கற்கை நன்றே கற்கை நன்றே

பிச்சை புகினும் கற்கை நன்றே – என்கிறது வெற்றிவேற்கை.

மேரியிடம் இருந்து பறிக்கப்பட்ட புத்தகம், அச்சிறுமியின் வாழ்க்கையில் கல்விச் சுடரை ஏற்றிய கதையைப் பற்றிய உங்களின் கருத்துகளை விவரிக்க.

Answer:

முன்னுரை :

வரலாற்றில் மனிதர்கள் வருகிறார்கள். சிலர் வரலாறாகவே வாழ்கிறார்கள். அந்த வகையில் கல்வி அறிவற்ற, இருட்சமூகத்தில் ஒற்றைச் சுடராய் பிறந்து ஓராயிரம் சுடர்களை ஏற்றி, மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன் கதையைப் பற்றி இக்கட்டுரையில் காண்போம்.

இளமை வாழ்க்கை :

மேரி தன் தாய் தந்தையோடு பருத்திக் காட்டில் வேலை செய்யும் கல்வி அறிவற்ற உழைக்கும் குடும்பம். அச்சூழலிலும் மேரி தனக்கென்ற தனி பாதை வகுப்பாள். அது, எதுவாகினும் தான் முதலில் பார்க்க வேண்டும் என ஆசைப்படுவாள்.

மேரிக்கு ஏற்பட்ட அவமானம்:

மேரி ஒருநாள்தாயுடன் வில்சன்வீட்டிற்குச் செல்கிறாள். அங்குக்குழந்தைகள் விளையாடுவதைக் கண்டு வியப்புற்றாலும் அவள் கண்கள் அங்கு இருந்த புத்தகத்தின் மீதே சென்றது. ஒரு புத்தகத்தை எடுத்துப் புரட்டிப் பார்க்கின்றபோது வில்சனின் இளைய மகள் புத்தகத்தை வெடுக்கென்று பிடுங்கி உன்னால் படிக்கமுடியாது என்று கூறினாள். அந்த வார்த்தை அவள் மனதைக் கிழித்தது. உடனே வீட்டை விட்டு வெளியேறினாள்.

மேரியின் ஏக்கம் :

வில்சனின் வீட்டில் நடந்த அவமானங்களை எண்ணி கண்ணீர் வடித்துத் தன் தந்தையிடம் நான் படிக்க வேண்டும். படித்தால்தான் இச்சமூகம் மதிக்கும் என்று கூறுகிறாள்.

தந்தையின் அறிவுரை :

மேரி நாம் பள்ளிச் செல்லமுடியாது. நமக்கென்று தனியாகப் பள்ளிக்கூடம் இல்லை. வெளியூரில் பள்ளியில் வெள்ளைக்காரர்கள் படிக்கும் பள்ளிதான் இருக்கிறது. அதிலும் நம்மைச் சேர்க்கமாட்டார்கள் என்றார்.

மேரியின் தன்னம்பிக்கை:

பதினொரு வயது நிரம்பிய மேரி வயல்காட்டிலிருந்து பருத்திமூட்டையைச் சுமந்துகொண்டு வீட்டிற்கு வந்தாள். அப்போது வீட்டில் முன்பின் அறிமுகம் இல்லாத பெண் தன்னை அறிமுகம் செய்துகொண்டு, நீ படிக்க வேண்டும்; உன் வேலைகளை முடித்துக்கொண்டு சீக்கிரம் வரவேண்டும் என்றார். மேரிக்கு நா எழவில்லை, வாயடைத்து நின்று வாசிக்கப் புறப்பட்டாள்; படிக்கத் தொடங்கினாள்.

புதிது புதிதாக கற்றாள். தன் பாதையை மெல்ல மெல்ல உயர்த்தினாள். இறுதி வகுப்பு படித்து, சான்றிதழ் பெற்றாள்.

பட்டமளிப்பு விழா :

தோல்வியே வெற்றிக்கு முதல்படி என்பதை உணர்ந்த மேரி, வில்சனின் இளைய மகள் என்னை அவமதிக்காவிட்டால் இந்த ஊக்கம் கிடைத்திருக்காது. அச்சிறுமியின் செயல் எனக்கு நேரிடாவிட்டால் இந்த விருது பெற இயலாது என்று எண்ணி பெருமிதம் அடைந்த மேரிக்கு எழுத படிக்கத் தெரியும் எனப் பட்டம் அளித்துச் சிறப்பித்தது.

மேற்படிப்பு :

பட்டமளிப்பு விழாவின்போது வில்சன் தோளில் மேரியை அணைத்து ‘நீ எனக்கு என்ன செய்யப் போகிறாய்’ என்றார். “மிஸ் நான் மேலும் படிக்க விரும்புகிறேன்” என்றார். ஆனால் அலைகடலில் அகப்பட்ட கப்பல் கரைசேர இயலாத நிலைபோல் இருந்தாள்.

புதியதோர் பயணம் :

மீண்டும் தன் பணியினைப் பருத்திக்காட்டில் தொடங்கினார்கள். அப்போது மிஸ் வில்சன் அங்கு வந்து, வெள்ளைக்காரப் பெண்மணி ஒரு கருப்பின குழந்தையின் படிப்பிற்காக பணம் அனுப்பி இருக்கிறார். அதைப் பெறுவதற்குரிய ஆளாக நீதான் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டிருக்கிறாய். நீ மேல்படிப்பிற்காக டவுனுக்குப் போகவேண்டும் தயாராகு என்றார் மேரியிடம்

ஊரே கூடுதல் :

மேரி மேல்படிப்பிற்குச் செல்ல தொடர்வண்டி நிலையத்தில் ஊரே ஒன்று கூடியது. அனைவரும் குட்பை மேரி, குட்பை வெற்றி உண்டாகட்டும் என்று வாழ்த்தி விடை கொடுத்தனர்.

முடிவுரை:

சாதாரணப் பெண்ணாகப் பிறந்து சாதனைப் பெண்ணாக மாறியது மேரியின் வாழ்வு.மேலும், சமுதாயத்தின் அறியாமை இருளைப் போக்க தோன்றிய மேரிஜேன்னின் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளைப் போல நாமும் அவமானங்களை வெகுமானமாக மாற்ற முயற்சிப்போம்.

என்பதனை உணர்வோம்! வெற்றி பெறுவோம்!!!


கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.

‘உனக்குப் படிக்கத் தெரியாது’ என்று உள்ளத்தில் பெற்ற அடி மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன் ………………………..உருவாக்கிடக் காரணமானது.

அ) குப்பை கொட்டும் இடத்தில் ஒரு பள்ளியை

ஆ) தெருமுனையில் ஒரு கல்லூரியை

இ) மக்கள் கூடுமிடத்தில் ஒரு சமுதாயக் கூடத்தை

ஈ) கிராமத்தில் ஏழை மாணவர்களுக்கான பள்ளியை

Answer:

அ) குப்பை கொட்டும் இடத்தில் ஒரு பள்ளியை

Question 2.

மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன் குப்பை கொட்டும் இடத்தில் ஒரு பள்ளியை உருவாக்கிட பணம் சேர்த்த

விதங்கள்………

i) சமையல் செய்து

ii) தோட்டமிட்டு

iii) பொது இடங்களில் பாட்டுப் பாடி

iv) பிச்சையெடுத்து

அ) i, ii, iii – சரி

ஆ) ii, iii, iv – சரி

இ) நான்கும் சரி

ஈ) iii – மட்டும் சரி

Answer:

அ) i, ii, iii – சரி

Question 3.

அமெரிக்க கறுப்பினப் பெண்மணி மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன் – சமூகங்களின் ஒரு குரலாக இருந்தவர்.

அ) உலகெங்கும் மூலை முடுக்குகளில் உள்ள ஒடுக்கப்பட்ட, கல்வி மறுக்கப்பட்ட

ஆ) கைவிடப்பட்ட, நோய்வாய்ப்பட்ட

இ) மறுமணம் மறுக்கப்பட்ட

ஈ) உழைக்கும்

Answer:

அ) உலகெங்கும் மூலை முடுக்குகளில் உள்ள ஒடுக்கப்பட்ட, கல்வி மறுக்கப்பட்ட

Question 4.

மேரி மெக்லியோட் பெத்யூன் என்னும் அமெரிக்கக் கல்வியாளரின், வாழ்க்கையை ‘உனக்குப் படிக்கத் தெரியாது’ என்ற தலைப்பில் நூலாகப் படைத்தவர்

அ) அகிலன்

ஆ) கமலாலயன்

இ) கீதாலயன்

ஈ) ஜெயகாந்தன்

Answer:

ஆ) கமலாலயன்

Question 5.

கொற்கை என்னும் ஊர் அமைந்துள்ள மாவட்டம்

அ) திருநெல்வேலி

ஆ) மதுரை

இ) தூத்துக்குடி

ஈ) குமரி

Answer:

இ) தூத்துக்குடி

Question 6.

“கொற்கைக் கோமான் கொற்கையம் பெருந்துறை” என்று குறிப்பிடும் நூல்

அ) அகநானூறு

ஆ) புறநானூறு

இ) ஐங்குறுநூறு

ஈ) நற்றிணை

Answer:

இ) ஐங்குறுநூறு


10th, sslc, Tamilnadu board, Guide, Chapter 5.3, திருவிளையாடற் புராணம், samacheer kalvi,

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.

இடைக்காடன் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலத்தை நாடகமாக்கி வகுப்பில் நடித்துக் காட்டுக.

Answer:

இடைக்காடனார் : மன்னா, வாழ்க! நான் கபிலனின் நண்பன். நான் இயற்றிய பாடலை உங்கள் முன் பாட விரும்புகின்றேன்.

குலேசபாண்டியன் : (கர்வத்தோடும்) பாடும். (இடைக்காடனார் பாடலைப் பாடுகின்றார்)

இடைக்காடனார் : (இறைவனிடம் முறையிடல்) இறைவா! பாண்டியன் என் பாடலைப் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் உம்மையும் பார்வதிதேவியையும் அவமதித்தான்.

இறைவன் : கபிலருக்காகவும் இடைக்காடனாருக்காகவும், இந்தக் கோவிலை விட்டுச் செல்கின்றேன். (இறைவன் கோவிலை விட்டு வெளியேறல்)

குலேசபாண்டியன் : இறைவனே! என்னால், என் படைகளால், என் பகைவரால், கள்வரால், காட்டில் உள்ள விலங்குகளால் தங்களுக்கு இடையூறு ஏற்பட்டதா? வேதங்களைப் பயின்றவர் நல்லொழுக்கத்தில் தவறினாரா? தவமும் தருமமும் சுருங்கியதோ? இல்லறமும் துறவறமும் தத்தம் நெறியில் இருந்து தவறினவோ? எமது தந்தையே யான் அறியேன்.

இறைவன் : இடைக்காடனார் பாடலை இகழ்ந்த குற்றம் தவிர வேறு குற்றம் இல்லை. இடைக்காடனார் மீது கொண்ட அன்பால் இங்கு வந்தோம்.

குலேசபாண்டியன் : பார்வதிதேவியை ஒரு பாகத்தில் கொண்ட பரம்பொருளே, புண்ணியனே, சிறியவர்களின் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெரியவருக்குப் பெருமையல்லவா? என் குற்றத்தைப் பொறுக்க.

(புலவர்களை ஒப்பனை செய்து பொன் இருக்கையில் அமர வைத்தல்)

குலேசபாண்டியன் : புலவர்களே என்னை மன்னியும். இடைக்காடனாருக்குச் செய்த குற்றத்தைப் பொறுக்க .

கபிலர் மற்றும் இடைக்காடனார் : மன்னா! நீர் கூறிய அமுதம் போன்ற குளிர்ந்த சொல்லால் எங்கள் சினமான தீ தணிந்தது.


பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.

இடைக்காடனாரின் பாடலை இகழ்ந்தவர் ……………………. இடைக்காடனாரிடம் அன்பு வைத்தவர்…………………

அ) அமைச்சர், மன்னன்

இ) இறைவன், மன்னன்

ஆ) அமைச்சர், இறைவன்

ஈ) மன்னன், இறைவன்

Answer:

ஈ) மன்னன், இறைவன்


குறுவினா

Question 1.

“கழிந்த பெரும்கேள்வியினான் எனக் கேட்டு முழுது உணர்ந்த கபிலன் தன் பால்

பொழிந்த பெரும் காதல்மிகு கேண்மையினான் இடைக்காட்டுப் புலவன் தென்சொல்”

– இவ்வடிகளில் கழிந்த பெரும் கேள்வியினான் யார்?

காதல் மிகு கேண்மையினான் யார்?

Answer:

கழிந்த பெரும் கேள்வியினான் (மிகுந்த கல்வியறிவு உடையவர்) – குலேசபாண்டியன்.

காதல்மிகு கேண்மையினான் (கபிலரிடம் நட்பு கொண்டவர்) – இடைக்காடனார்.

Question 2.

அமர்ந்தான் – பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.

Answer:


சிறுவினா

Question 1.

மன்னன் இடைக்காடனார் என்ற புலவனுக்குச் சிறப்பு செய்தது ஏன்? விளக்கம் தருக.

Answer:

  • குலேச பாண்டியன் தமிழ்ப் புலமை வாய்ந்தவன்.
  • அவன் அவையில் புலவர் இடைக்காடனார் பாடிய பாடலை மன்னன் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் அவமதித்தான்.
  • இடைக்காடனார் கடம்பவனத்து இறைவனிடம் முறையிட்டார்.
  • இறைவன் கடம்பவனம் கோயிலை விட்டு நீங்கி வைகை ஆற்றின் தெற்கே கோயில் உருவாக்கி அமர்ந்தார்.
  • இதையறிந்த மன்னன் யான் என்ன தவறு செய்தேன்? ஏன் இங்கு அமர்ந்தீர்? என்று வருந்தினான்.
  • இறைவன், இடைக்காடனார் பாடலை இகழ்ந்த குற்றமே தவிர, வேறு எந்த தவறும் இல்லை என்றார்.
  • தன் தவறை உணர்ந்த மன்னன் இடைக்காடனாரை அழைத்து மங்கல ஒப்பனை செய்து, பொன் இருக்கையில் அமர்த்தி, பணிந்து வணங்கி தம் தவறைப் பொறுத்தருள வேண்டினான்.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.

இறைவன் புலவர் இடைக்காடன் குரலுக்குச் செவிசாய்த்த நிகழ்வை நயத்துடன் எழுதுக.

Answer:

மன்னனின் அவையில் இடைக்காடனார் :

வேப்பமாலை அணிந்த குலேச பாண்டியன் மிகுந்த கல்வியறிவு உடையவன். இதைக் கேள்வியுற்ற இடைக்காடனார் குலேசனின் அவைக்குச் சென்று தான் இயற்றிய கவிதையைப் படித்தார்.

இடைக்காடனாரின் புலமையை அவமதித்தல் :

வேப்பமாலை அணிந்த குலேசபாண்டியன் மிகுந்த கல்வியறிவு உடையவன். தமிழறியும் பெருமான், அடியார்க்கு நல்நிதி போன்றவன், பொருட்செல்வமும் கல்விச் செல்வமும் உடையவன் என்று கேட்டுணர்ந்து தாங்கள் முன் சுவை நிரம்பிய கவிதை பாடினார் இடைக்காடனார். பாண்டியன் சிறிதேனும் பாடலைப் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் புலவரின் புலமையை அவமதித்தான்

இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனிடம் முறையிடுதல் :

இறைவா! பாண்டியன் என்னை இகழவில்லை. சொல்லின்வடிவான பார்வதியையும், பொருளின் வடிவான உம்மையும் அவமதித்தான் என்று சினத்துடன் இறைவனிடம் கூறினார்.

இறைவன் கோவிலை விட்டு வெளியேறுதல் :

இடைக்காடனாரின் வேண்டுகோளை ஏற்று வைகை ஆற்றின் தெற்கே கோயில் அமைத்துக் குடிகொண்டார் இறைவன். உடனே கபிலரும் மகிழ்ந்து இடைக்காடனாரோடு வெளியேறினார்.

இறைவனிடம் மன்னன் வேண்டுதல் :

இதையறிந்த மன்னன் இறைவனிடம் என் படைகளால், பகைவரால், கள்வரால், விலங்குகளால் தங்களுக்கு இடையூறு ஏற்பட்டதா? மறையவர் ஒழுக்கம் குறைந்தாரோ? தவமும், தானமும் சுருங்கியதோ? இல்லறமும், துறவறமும் தத்தம் வழியில் தவறினவோ? தந்தையே நான் அறியேன் என்றார் குலசேகரபாண்டியன்.

இறைவனின் பதில் :

‘வயல் சூழ்ந்த கடம்பவனத்தைவிட்டு ஒருபோதும் நீங்கமாட்டோம்.’ ‘இடைக்காடனார் பாடலை இகழ்ந்த குற்றம் தவிர உன்னிடம் குற்றம் இல்லை’ என்றார். ‘இடைக்காடன் மீது கொண்ட அன்பினால் இங்கு வந்தோம்’ என்றார்.

பிழையைப் பொறுத்தருள இறைவனிடம் வேண்டுதல் :

வானிலிருந்து ஒலித்த இறைவனின் சொல் கேட்டான் குலேச பாண்டியன். மகிழ்ந்து, பரம்பொருளே! புண்ணியனே! சிறியவரின் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெரியவர்க்குப் பெருமை என்று குற்றத்தைப் பொறுக்க வேண்டினான்.

மன்னன் இடைக்காடனாருக்குப் பெருமை செய்தல் :

மன்னனின் மாளிகை வாழை, சாமரை இவற்றாலான விதானமும் விளக்கும் உடையது. பூரண கும்பம் மாலை, கொடி இவற்றால் ஒப்பனை செய்யப்பட்டது. புலவர்கள் சூழ இடைக்காடனாரை மங்கலமாக ஒப்பனை செய்து பொன் இருக்கையில் அமர்த்தினான்.

மன்னன் புலவரிடம் வேண்டுதல் :

மன்னன் புலவர்களிடம், தான் இடைக்காடனாருக்குச் செய்த குற்றத்தைப் பொறுத்துக்கொள்ள வேண்டும் என்றான். புலவர்களும், நீர் கூறிய அமுதம் போன்ற சொல்லால் எங்கள் சினம் தணிந்துவிட்டது என்றனர்.

இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு.

கேள்வியினான் – வினையாலணையும் பெயர்

காடனுக்கும் கபிலனுக்கும் – எண்ணும்மை

கழிந்த – பெயரெச்சம்


பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம்.

4.


கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு.

கற்றோர் – வினையாலணையும் பெயர்

உணர்ந்தகபிலன் – பெயரெச்சம்

தீம்தேன், நல்நிதி, பெருந்தகை – பண்புத்தொகைகள்

ஒழுகுதார் – – வினைத்தொகை

மீனவன் – ஆகுபெயர்

பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம்.


பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.

கபிலரின் நண்பர் யார்?

அ) பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர்

ஆ) இடைக்காடனார்

இ) குலேச பாண்டியன்

ஈ) ஒட்டக்கூத்தர்

Answer:

ஆ) இடைக்காடனார்

Question 2.

திருவிளையாடற்புராணத்தின் ஆசிரியர் யார்?

அ) சமண முனிவர்

ஆ) அகத்தியர் முனிவர்

இ) பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர்

ஈ) இடைக்காடனார்

Answer:

இ) பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர்

Question 3.

திருவிளையாடற்புராணம் படலங்களின் எண்ணிக்கை ………………………

அ) 64

ஆ) 96

இ) 30

ஈ) 18

Answer:

அ) 64

Question 4.

‘தகடூர் எறிந்த பெருஞ்சேரல்’ இரும்பொறை யாருக்குக் கவரி வீசினான்?

அ) பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர்

ஆ) கபிலர்

இ) இடைக்காடனார்

ஈ) மோசிகீரனார்

Answer:

ஈ) மோசிகீரனார்

Question 5.

வேப்ப மாலை அணிந்த மன்னன்?

அ) சேரன்

ஆ) சோழன்

இ) பாண்டியன்

ஈ) பல்லவன்

Answer:

இ) பாண்டியன்

Question 6.

மோசிகீரனார் முரசுக் கட்டிலில் கண்ண யரக் காரணம் ………………………

அ) குளிர்ந்த காற்று வீசியதால்

ஆ) நல்ல உறக்கம் வந்ததால்

இ) களைப்பு மிகுதியால்

ஈ) அரசன் இல்லாமையால்

Answer:

இ) களைப்பு மிகுதியால்

Question 7.

களைப்பு மிகுதியால்] ‘மூரித் தீம் தேன் வழிந்து ஒழுகு தாரானைக் கண்டு’ என்னும் தொடரில் தாரானை என்பது யாரைக் குறிக்கிறது?

அ) சிவபெருமான்

ஆ) கபிலர்

இ) பாண்டியன்

ஈ) இடைக்காடனார்

Answer:

இ) பாண்டியன்

Question 8.

பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர் பிறந்த ஊர் ………………………

அ) தஞ்சாவூர்

ஆ) திருமறைக்காடு

இ) திருத்துறைப் பூண்டி

ஈ) திருவண்ணாமலை

Answer:

ஆ) திருமறைக்காடு

Question 9.

திருவிளையாடற்புராணம் காண்டங்களின் எண்ணிக்கை ………………………

அ) 3

ஆ) 4

இ) 6

ஈ) 10

Answer:

அ) 3

Question 10.

இடைக்காடனார் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலம் இடம் பெறும் காண்டம் ………………………

அ) மதுரைக் காண்டம்

ஆ) கூடற் காண்டம்

இ) திரு ஆலவாய்க் காண்டம்

ஈ) யுத்த காண்டம்

Answer:

இ) திரு ஆலவாய்க் காண்டம்

Question 11.

இடைக்காடனார் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலம் திருவிளையாடற்புராணத்தில் எத்தனையாவது படலம்?

அ) 64

ஆ) 56

இ) 46

ஈ) 48

Answer:

ஆ) 56

Question 12.

அரசரும் புலவருக்குக் ……………………… வீசுவர்.

அ) கவண்

ஆ) கணையாழி

இ) கவரி

ஈ) கல்

Answer:

இ) கவரி

Question 13.

குலேசபாண்டியன் ……………………… நாட்டை ஆட்சி புரிந்தான்.

அ) பாண்டிய

ஆ) சேர

இ) சோழ

ஈ) பல்லவ

Answer:

அ) பாண்டிய

Question 14.

குலேச பாண்டியன் என்னும் மன்னன் ……………………… புலமையில் சிறந்து விளங்கினான்.

அ) தமிழ்

ஆ) வடமொழி

இ) தெலுங்கு

ஈ) கன்ன டம்

Answer:

அ) தமிழ்

Question 15.

சொல்லின் வடிவாக இறைவனின் இடப்புறம் வீற்றிருப்பவள் ………………………

அ) பார்வதி

ஆ) திருமகள்

இ) கலைமகள்

ஈ) அலைமகள்

Answer:

அ) பார்வதி

Question 16.

சொல்லின் பொருளாக விளங்குவது ………………………

அ) இறைவன்

ஆ) இடைக்காடனார்

இ) கபிலர்

ஈ) பார்வதி

Answer:

அ) இறைவன்

Question 17.

சொல்லின் பொருளாக விளங்கும் உன்னையுமே அவமதித்ததாக இறைவனிடம் இடைக்காடனார் ……………………… கூறிச் சென்றார்.

அ) அழுகையுடன்

ஆ) சினத்துடன்

இ) ஏளனத்துடன்

ஈ) உருக்கத்துடன்

Answer:

ஆ) சினத்துடன்

Question 18.

இடைக்காடனாரின் சொல் ……………………… போல் இறைவனின் திருச்செவியில் சென்று தைத்தது.

அ) கூரிய அம்பு

ஆ) வேற்படை

இ) தீ

ஈ) விடமுள்

Answer:

ஆ) வேற்படை

Question 19.

………………………ஆற்றின் தென் பக்கத்தே ஒரு திருக்கோவிலை ஆக்கி இறைவன் அங்குச் சென்று இருந்தார்.

அ) காவிரி

ஆ) கங்கை

இ) வைகை

ஈ) தாமிரபரணி

Answer:

இ) வைகை

Question 20.

திரு ஆலவாய்க் கோவிலை விட்டு வெளியேறிய இறைவன் – வடிவத்தை மறைத்து………………………வடக்கே வையை ஆற்றின் தென் பக்கத்தே சென்று இருந்தார்.

அ) நரசிங்க

ஆ) பலராம

இ) இலிங்க

ஈ) சர்ப்ப

Answer:

இ) இலிங்க

Question 21.

கடம்பவனத்தை விட்டு ஒரு போதும் நீங்க மாட்டோம் என்று கூறியவர் ………………………

அ) குலேச பாண்டியன்

ஆ) இறைவன்

இ) இடைக்காடனார்

ஈ) கபிலர்

Answer:

ஆ) இறைவன்

Question 22.

மன்னன் இடைக்காடனாரை மங்கலமாக ஒப்பனை செய்து ……………………… இருக்கையில் விதிப்படி அமர்த்தினான்.

அ) மரகத

ஆ) பொன்

இ) தன்

ஈ) வைர

Answer:

ஆ) பொன்

Question 23.

கேள்வியினான், காடனுக்கும் கபிலனுக்கும் – இச்சொற்களுக்குரிய இலக்கணக் குறிப்புகளைக் கண்டறிக.

அ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர், எண்ணும்மை

ஆ) எண்ணும்மை, வினையாலணையும் பெயர்

இ) முற்றெச்சம், உம்மைத் தொகை

ஈ) வினையெச்சம், தொழிற் பெயர்

Answer:

அ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர், எண்ணும்மை

Question 24.

‘மாசற விசித்த வார்புறு வள்பின்’ என்று பாடிய புலவர் _ பாடப்பட்டவன்

அ) மோசிகீரனார், தகடூர் எறிந்த பெருஞ்சேரல் இரும்பொறை

ஆ) ஔவையார், அதியமான்

இ) பரணர், தலையாளங்கானத்துச் செருதவன்ற பாண்டியன்

ஈ) கபிலர், பாரி

Answer:

அ) மோசிகீரனார், தகடூர் எறிந்த பெருஞ்சேரல் இரும்பொறை

Question 25.

அரண்மனையின் முரசுக் கட்டிலில் தூங்கியவர் ……………………… கவரி வீசிய மன்னர் ………………………

அ) இடைக்காடனார், குலேச பாண்டியன்

ஆ) மோசிகீரனார், பெருஞ்சேரல் இரும்பொறை

இ) கபிலர், பாரி

ஈ) பரணர், பேகன்

Answer:

ஆ) மோசிகீரனார், பெருஞ்சேரல் இரும்பொறை

Question 26.

பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர் ……………………… நூற்றாண்டைச் சேர்ந்தவர்.

அ) பத்தாம்

ஆ) பதினேழாம்

இ) பதினெட்டாம்

ஈ) பதினைந்தாம்

Answer:

ஆ) பதினேழாம்

Question 27.

பரஞ்சோதி முனிவர் ……………………… பக்தி மிக்கவர்.

அ) சிவ

ஆ) பெருமாள்

இ) முருக

ஈ) தேச

Answer:

அ) சிவ

Question 28.

திருவிளையாடற் கதைகள் ……………………… முதற்கொண்டு கூறப்பட்டு வருகிறது.

அ) சிலப்பதிகாரம்

ஆ) மணிமேகலை

இ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி

ஈ) தொல்காப்பியம்

Answer:

அ) சிலப்பதிகாரம்


குறுவினா

Question 1.

நும் கவிதைப் பேழைப் பகுதி அமைந்த திருவிளையாடற்புராணப் பாடல் அமைந்த காண்டம் மற்றும் படலம் எது?

Answer:

காண்டம்: திரு ஆலவாய்க் காண்டம்

படலம் : இடைக்காடன் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலம்

Question 2.

“சந்நிதியில் வீழ்ந்து எழுந்து தமிழ் அறியும் பெருமானே” என்று யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனிடம் கூறினார்.

Question 3.

‘நின்இடம் பிரியா இமையப் பாவை’ – இவ்வடிகளில் சுட்டப்படுபவர் யார்?

Answer:

ஈசனின் இடத்தில் வீற்றிருக்கும் பார்வதி தேவியே இவ்வடிகளில் சுட்டப்படுகின்றார்.

Question 4.

‘சொல் பொருளான உன்னையுமே இகழ்ந்தனன்’ – பொருளானவன் யார்? இகழ்ந்தவன் யார்?

Answer:

1.பொருளானவன் – திருஆலவாய் இறைவன் ஈசன்

2. இகழ்ந்தவன் – குலேச பாண்டியன்

Question 5.

“பிழைத்தனவோ யான் அறியேன் எந்தாய்” யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

குலேச பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் (ஈசன்) கூறினார்.

Question 6.

“யாம் அவனிடத்தில் வைத்த அருளினால் வந்தேம்” என்று யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

இறைவன் (ஈசன்) குலேச பாண்டியனிடம் கூறினார்.

Question 7.

“யாம் அவனிடத்தில் வைத்த அருளினால் வந்தேம்” என்று இறைவன் கூறக் காரணம் யாது?

Answer:

இடைக்காடனாரின் செய்யுளை குலேச பாண்டியன் இகழ்ந்தான். இறைவன் இடைக்காடனாரின் மீது மிகுந்த அன்பு வைத்திருந்ததனால் இறைவன் கோவிலை விட்டு நீங்கினான்.

Question 8.

“சிறியோர் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெருமையன்றோ

எண்ணிய பெரியோர்க்கு” என்று யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

குலேச பாண்டியன் இறைவினடம் (ஈசன்)கூறினார்.

Question 9.

சொல் வடிவாய் நின்றவர் யார்? சொல் பொருளாய் விளங்கியவர் யார்?

Answer:

  • சொல் வடிவாய் நின்றவர்: பார்வதி தேவி
  • சொல் பொருளாய் விளங்கியவர்: இறைவன் (ஈசன்)

Question 10.

“சிறியோர் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெருமையன்றோ

எண்ணிய பெரியோர்க்கு” – இவ்வடிகளில் அமைந்த முரண் சொற்கள் எவை?

Answer:

சிறியோர் – பெரியோர்

Question 11.

“தண்ணிய அமுதால் எங்கள் கோபத்தீத் தணிந்தது” என்று யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

புலவர் இடைக்காடனார் குலேச பாண்டியனிடம் கூறினார்.

Question 12.

“பண்ணிய குற்றம் எல்லாம் பொறுக்க எனப்பரவித் தாழ்ந்தவன்” என்று யார் யாரிடம் கூறியது?

Answer:

குலேச பாண்டியன் புலவர் இடைக்காடனாரிடம் கூறினார்.

Question 13.

பண்ணிய குற்றம் எல்லாம் பொறுக்க எனப்பரவித் தாழ்ந்தவன்” பண்ணிய குற்றம் யாது?

Answer:

குலேச பாண்டியன் இடைக்காடனாரின் பாடலை இகழ்ந்தார். அதனால் இறைவன் கோயிலை விட்டு நீங்கினார்.

Question 14.

சொல்லேருழவனுக்குக் கவரி வீசிய வில்லேருழவன் – சொல்லேருழவன் யார்? வில்லேருழவன் யார்?

Answer:

  1. சொல்லேருழவன் (புலவன்) – மோசிகீரனார்
  2. வில்லேருழவன் (மன்னன்) – தகடூர் எறிந்த பெருஞ்சேரல் இரும்பொறை

சிறுவினா

Question 1.

“பிழைத்தனவோ யான் அறியேன் எந்தாய்” என்று பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் வினவியதை எழுதுக.

Answer:

  • இறைவனே, என்னால், என்படைகளால், என்பகைவரால், கள்வரால், காட்டில் உள்ள விலங்குகளால் இத்தமிழ்நாட்டில் தங்களுக்கு இடையூறு ஏற்பட்டதா?
  • வேதங்களை பயின்றவர் நல்லொழுக்கத்தில் தவறினாரா?
  • தவமும் தருமமும் சுருங்கியதோ?
  • இல்லறமும் துறவறமும் தத்தம் நெறியில் இருந்து தவறினவோ?
    – எமது தந்தையே யான் அறியேன் என்று குலேச பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் வினவினான்.

Question 2.

“பிழைத்தனவோ யான் அறியேன் எந்தாய்” – இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்கம் தருக.

Answer:

இடம் சுட்டல்:

பெரிய புராணம் திரு ஆலவாய்க் காண்டத்தில், இடைக்காடன் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலத்தில் குலேச பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் வினவினான்.

பொருள் விளக்கம்:

இறைவனே, என்னால், என் படைகளால், என் பகைவரால், கள்வரால், காட்டில் உள்ள விலங்குகளால் இத்தமிழ்நாட்டில் தங்களுக்கு இடையூறு ஏற்பட்டதா? வேதங்களை பயின்றவர் நல்லொழுக்கத்தில் தவறினாரா? தவமும் தருமமும் சுருங்கியதோ? இல்லறமும் துறவறமும் தத்தம் நெறியில் இருந்து தவறினவோ? எமது தந்தையே யான் அறியனே என்று பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் வினவினான்.


Question 3.

“சிறியோர் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெருமையன்றோ

எண்ணிய பெரியோர்க்கு” – இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்கம் தருக.

Answer:

இடம் சுட்டல்:

பெரிய புராணம் திரு ஆலவாய்க் காண்டத்தில், இடைக்காடன் பிணக்குத் தீர்த்த படலத்தில் குலேச பாண்டியன் இறைவனிடம் வினவினான்.

பொருள் விளக்கம்:

வானிலிருந்து ஒலித்த இறைவனின் சொல் கேட்டுப் பாண்டியன், “பார்வதி தேவியை ஒரு பாகத்தில் கொண்டபரம்பொருளே, புண்ணியனே, சிறியவர்களின் குற்றம் பொறுப்பது பெரியவருக்குப் பெருமையல்லவா?” என்று தன் குற்றத்தைப் பொறுக்க வேண்டினார்.


Tamilnadu, ssc, Physics, science, Chapter 5, Acoustics, Samacheer kalvi,

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.

Which of the following is correct?

(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.

(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

(c) Rate of change of energy is current.

(d) Rate of change of current is charge.

Answer:

(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

Question 2.

SI unit of resistance is:

(a) mho

(b) joule

(c) ohm

(d) ohm meter

Answer:

(c) ohm

Question 3.

In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?

(a) The switch produces electricity.

(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.

(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.

(d) The bulb is getting charged.

Answer:

(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit

Question 4.

Kilowatt hour is the unit of:

(a) resistivity

(b) conductivity

(c) electrical energy

(d) electrical power

Answer:

(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

When a circuit is open, ……….. cannot pass through it.

The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ……….

The wiring in a house consists of ………… circuits.

The power of an electric device is a product of ……… and ………..

LED stands for ………..

Answer:

current

resistance

parallel

potential difference, current

Light Emitting Diode

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.

MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.

The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.

One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.

The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Answer:

False – Ohm’s law states that the relationship between current and voltage.

True

False – The SI unit for electric current is ampere.

False – One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.

False – The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the 

highest of the “individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Answer:

(i) – (e)

(ii) – (a)

(iii) – (b)

(iv) – (c)

(v) – (d)

V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.

Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.

Answer:

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.

Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.

Answer:

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.

Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.

Answer:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.

Define the unit of current.

Answer:

The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,

1 ampere = 1coulomb1second

Question 2.

What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?

Answer:

If the conductor is made a thicker area of cross-section of conduction increases that will decrease the resistance.

Question 3.

Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?

Answer:

Tungsten metal is used in bulbs because its melting point is the greatest.

But it is not used in fuse wires. When a current more than 5A flows tungsten wire will be melted. Hence tungsten is not used in fuse wire.

Question 4.

Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.

Answer:

The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron and electric toaster.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.

Define electric potential and potential difference.

Answer:

Electric Potential: It is the amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Electric potential

Potential difference : It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric force.

Potential difference VA – VB = WA−WBQ

Question 2.

What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?

Answer:

The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.

The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.

Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.

State Ohm’s law.

Answer:

According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.

I ∝ V. Hence, = 1V = constant.

The value of this proportionality constant is found to 1R

Therefore, I = (1R) V

V = IR

Question 4.

Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.

Answer:

Question 5.

What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?

Answer:

In the domestic appliance, it is used as a parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.

It has an alternative current (AC). Not DC current as it is from cables, so high potential flows through this.

One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

VIII. Long answer Questions.

Question 1.

With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:

(a) in series and

(b) in parallel

Answer:

(a) Resistors in series : A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if resistors are connected end to end, so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.

Let, three resistances R1, R2 and R3 be connected in series. Let the current flowing through theorem be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V1,V2 and V3 across R1, R2 and R3 respectively, are given by:

V1 = I R1 ………. (1)

V2 = I R2 ……… (2)

v3 = I R3 ………. (3)

The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:

V = V1 + V2 + V3

Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get

V = I R1 + I R2 + I R3 …….. (4)

The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be RS.

Then,

V = I RS ……….(5)

Combining equations (4) and (5), we get,

I RS = I R1 + I R2 + I R3

RS = R1 + R2 + R3 ……….. (6)

Thus, you can understand that when a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’.

i.e., RS = n R

The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel : A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

Consider that three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected across two common points A and B The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is me sured using the voltmeter. The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I1, I2 and I3 passing through R1, R2 and R3 respectively.

According to the Ohm’s law, you have,

The total current through the circuit is given by

I = I1 + I2 + I3

Using equations (1), (2) and (3), you get

I = VR1 + VR2 + VR3 ……… (4)

Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be RP Then,

I = VRP ……… (5)

Combining equations (4) and (5), you have

Thus, when a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is Rn

The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.

(a) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?

(b) Name and define its unit.

(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be r connected in a circuit?

Answer:

(a) (i) Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.

(ii) The electric current represents the number of charges flowing in any cross-section of a conductor (say a metal wire) in unit time.

(b) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).

The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,

1 ampere = 1 coulomb 1 second 

(c) (i) The ammeter is used to measure the current.

(ii) An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.

(iii) The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 3.

(a) State Joule’s law of heating.

(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?

(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?

Answer:

(a) Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.

directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor.

directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(b) Because,

It has high resistivity,

It has a high melting point,

It is not easily oxidized.

(c) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.

Question 4.

Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)

Answer:

Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.

The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.

The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.

The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).

The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

Question 5.

(a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?

(b) List the merits of LED bulb.

Answer:

(a) Advantages of LED TV:

It has brighter picture quality.

It is thinner in size.

It uses less power and consumes very less energy.

Its life span is more.

It is more reliable.

(b) Advantages of LED bulb:

As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.

It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.

In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have significantly low power requirement.

It is not harmful to the environment.

A wide range of colours is possible here.

It is cost-efficient and energy efficient.

Mercury and other toxic materials are not required. One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more LED bulbs.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.

An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?

Answer:

(i) When heating is maximum, the power

P1 = 420 W

Applied voltage V = 220 V

P = VI

Current I = PV

I = 420220 = 1.909 A

I = 1.909 A

(ii) When heating is minimum

Power P2 = 180 W

Applied voltage V = 220 V

P = VI

∴ Current I = PV

I = 180220 = 0.8181 A

I = 0.8181 A

Question 2.

A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.

Solution:

100 W = 100 joules per second

1 watt hours = 3600 joules

The electric bulb is lighted for 5 hours daily,

100 W × 5 = 500 watt hours

500 watt hours = 1800000 joules

1 kWh = 3600000 joules

Units consumed per day = 18000003600000 = 0.5 units

Untis consumed in month = 0.5 × 31 = 15.5 units …. (1)

Now, Sum of power of four 60 watt bulbs = 240 W

240 W × 5 hours = 1200 watt hours

1200 watt hours = 4320000 joules

Energy consumed per day = 43200003600000 = 1.2 units

Energy consumed in a month = 1.2 × 31 = 37.2 units …. (2)

Total energy consumed in a month = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 units

1 unit = 1 kWh

The energy consumed in the month of January = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.

A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s

(a) power

(b) resistance

(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.

Answer:

Voltage V = 3 V

Current I = 600 mA

(a) Power = VI

= 3 × 600 × 10-3

= 1800 × 10-3

= 1.8 W

(c) Time = 4h

Energy consumed E = P × t

E = 1.8 × 4

= 7.2 W

Question 4.

A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?

(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?

(c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?

Answer:

(a) Original resistance

R = lA

∴ R α l

After cutting length of each piece

r = l5

New resistance

R’ = l′A

R’ α l’

R : R’ = 5 : 1

(b) When five parts of the wire are placed in parallel.

Effective Resistance

Resistance of the combinations

RP = R25

(c) When resistance are connected in series

RS = R

When resistance are connected in parallel

RP = R25

RS : RP = R : R25

= 25 R : R_1

RS : RP = 25 : 1

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.

Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.

Answer:

Let the resistance be R, and R2 when two resistances are connected in series

RS = R1 + R2

= 9

R1 + R2 = 9 ……….(1)

When two resistance are connected in parallel

Using (1) equation (2) becomes

9R1R2

R1 R2 = 18 ……….(3)

(R1 – R2)² = (R1 + R2)² – 4R1R2

= (9)² – 4 × 18

= 81 – 72 = 9

∴ (R1 – R2) = √9 = 3 ………(4)

From (1)

R1 + R2 = 9

2R1 = 12

∴ R1 = 122 = 6 ohm

From (1)

R2 = 9 – R1

= 9 – 6 = 3Ω

The values of resistances are

R1 = 6 ohm

R2 = 3 ohm

Question 2.

How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?

Solution:

Current I = 5A

Time (t) = 1 second

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10-19 C

I=qt=net

Number of electron, n = Ite = 5×11.6×10−19

n = 3.125 × 1019.

Question 3.

A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.

Answer:

Resistance R = 10Ω

Let l be the length of the wire R ∝ 1

When the length is increased to three times,

l’ = 3l

∴ New Resistance

R’ ∝ l’ ∝ 3l

∴ RR′ = l3l = 13

∴ R’ = 3R

New resistance = 3 times the original resistance.

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.

Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of:

(a) energy

(b) power

(c) mass

(d) charge

Answer:

(d) charge

Question 2.

The S.I. unit of electric current is _____.

(a) Volt

(b) Power

(c) Ampere

(d) newton.

Answer:

(c) Ampere

Question 3.

The unit of electric current is:

(a) ampere

(b) volt

(c) watt

(d) kilo-watt

Answer:

(a) ampere

Question 4.

The work done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points in a circuit is 2 J. What is the potential difference between the points?

(a) 1 V

(b) 10 V

(c) 100 V

(d) 0.

Answer:

(a) 1 V

Question 5.

The amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other is:

(a) resistance

(b) current

(c) Potential

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(c) Potential

Question 6.

Ohm’s law gives the relative between potential difference and:

(a) emf

(b) temperature

(c) resistance

(d) current

Answer:

(d) current

Question 7.

The unit of resistance is _____.

(a) volt

(b) volt ampere-1

(c) ampere

(d) Joule.

Answer:

(b) volt ampere-1

Question 8.

The symbol of battery is:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 14

Answer:

(b)

Question 9.

Electrical resistivity for a given material is ______.

(a) zero

(b) constant

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) only (b).

Answer:

(b) constant

Question 10.

The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20 ohm is:

(a) 100 V

(b) 4 V

(c) 0.01 V

(d) 40 V

Answer:

(b) 4 V

Question 11.

The unit of electrical conductivity ______.

(a) ohm-1 metre

(b) ohm-1 metre-1

(c) Volt Ampere-1

(d) ohm.

Answer:

(b) ohm-1 metre-1

Question 12.

Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:

(a) potential difference

(b) electric power

(c) electric energy

(d) charge

Answer:

(c) electric energy

Question 13.

The resistivity of a material is 4 × 10-8 Ωm and its conductivity ______.

(a) 25 × 10-8 mho m-1

(b) 0.25 × 10-8 mho m-1

(c) 25 × 108 mho m-1

(d) 0.25 × 108 mho m-1.

Answer:

(d) 0.25 × 108 mho m-1.

Question 14.

The commonly used safely fuse wire is made of:

(a) nickel

(b) lead

(c) an alloy of tin and lead

(d) copper

Answer:

(c) an alloy of tin and lead

Question 15.

The value of one horse power is:

(a) 746 kW

(b) 746 W

(c) 3.6 × 105 W

(d) 3.6 × 106 kW

Answer:

(b) 746 W

Question 16.

When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in series, the effecive resistance for series is ______.

(a) nR

(b) nR

(c) Rn

(d) none of these.

Answer:

(a) nR

Question 17.

Name the physical quantity which is measured in kW:

(a) electric energy

(b) electric power

(c) electric current

(d) electric potential

Answer:

(b) electric power

Question 18.

What is the amount of current, when 20 C of charges flows in 4 s through a conductor? [l = qv]

(a) 5 A

(b) 80 A

(c) 4 A

(d) 2 A

Answer:

(a) 5 A

Question 19.

Nichrome is ______.

(a) a conductor

(b) an insulator

(c) an alloy

(d) none of these.

Answer:

(c) an alloy

Question 20.

The main source of biomass energy is:

(a) coal

(b) heat energy

(c) thermal energy

(d) cow-dung

Answer:

(d) cow-dung

Question 21.

The value of one ampere is:

(a) 1second1coulomb

(b) 1 coulomb × sec

(c) 1coulomb1second

(d) 1 coulomb

Answer:

(c) 1coulomb1second

Question 22.

The heat produced in an electric heater of resistance 2 Ω is connected to an electric source, when a current of 6 A flows for 5 minutes _____.

(a) 216 × 102 J

(b) 2160 J

(c) 900 J

(d) 150 J.

Answer:

(a) 216 × 102 J

Hint: Formula H = I2Rt Joule.

Question 23.

The value of 1joule1coulomb

(a) 1 kWh

(b) 1 Wh

(c) ampere

(d) volt

Answer:

(d) volt

Question 24.

The mathematical from of Ohm’s law is given by:

(a) V = IR

(b) I = VR

(c) R = IV

(d) I = RV

Answer:

(a) V = IR

Question 25.

One kilowatt hour is _____.

(a) 3.6 × 106 J

(b) 36 × 106 J

(c) 3.6 × 105 J

(d) 36 × 105 J.

Answer:

(a) 3.6 × 106 J

Question 26.

If the length and radius of a conductor is doubled then its specific resistance will:

(a) be doubled

(b) be halved

(c) be tripled

(d) remain the same

Answer:

(d) remain the same

Question 27.

The value of resistivity of nichrome is:

(a) 1.5 × 106 Ωm

(b) 1.5 × 10-6 Ωm

(c) 5.1 × 106 Ωm

(d) 5.1 × 10-6 Ωm

Answer:

(b) 1.5 × 10-6 Ωm

Question 28.

Due to short circuit, effective resistance in the circuit becomes _____.

(a) large

(b) very small

(c) very large

(d) zero.

Answer:

(b) very small

Question 29.

if a conductor has a length of 1 m and area of 1 m² then its resistivity is equal to its:

(a) resistance

(b) conductance

(c) length

(d) conductivity

Answer:

(a) resistance

Question 30.

When resistors are connected in parallel, potential difference across each resistor will be:

(a) different

(b) same

(c) vary

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(b) same

Question 31.

LED TV screen was developed by James P. Mitchell in _____.

(a) 1797

(b) 1977

(c) 2009

(d) 1987.

Answer:

(b) 1977

Question 32.

Heat developed across a conductor H =

(a) IRt

(b) VR

(c) I2Rt

(d) I2R

Answer:

(c) I2Rt

Question 33.

Expression for electric energy is:

(a) W = VI

(b) W = VIt

(c) W = Vt

(d) W = VIt

Answer:

(b) W = VIt

Question 34.

In our home, fuse box consists of:

(a) fuse wire

(b) MCB

(c) fuse wire or MCB

(d) switches

Answer:

(c) fuse wire or MCB

Question 35.

Which of the following is a semi conductor device?

(a) LED bulb

(b) fuse

(c) MCB

(d) switch

Answer:

(a) LED bulb

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The flow of charge: Electric current. A continuous closed path of an electric current is ………. The unit of charge: Coulomb then-current ……….

2. Electric current I: Charge (Q)/ ………. while electric potential V is ……….

3. A resistor of resistance R: Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 15 Then variable resistance and ……….. rheostat ……….

4. In series connection of resistors: ………. Then for parallel connection of resistors: ………..

5. The transformation of energy in Electric oven: ………… Electric cell ………..

6. The expression obtained from Ohm’s law ………… joule’s law

7. The unit of electric power …………. then electric energy ………..

8. The equivalent of 1 volt ………. then for 1 ohm ………..

9. The tap-key is used to ……… and ……….. an electric circuit.

10. The opposition to flow of current is called ………. and its unit is ………..

11. The heat developed in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of ………… and ………. of flow.

12. The S.I unit of electric current is ……….

13. The S.l unit of resistance is ……….

14. ……….. is the S.l unit of potential difference.

15. From Ohm’s law VI =

16. If a current 2A flows through conductor having a potential difference of 6 V then its resistance is ……….

17. If R is the resistance of a conductor then its conductance is G = ……….

18. Conductivity is ……… for ……….. than insulators.

19. When resistors are connected in series the equivalent resistance is …………. than the highest resistance of individual resistors.

20. In series connection ……….. is less as effective resistance is more.

21. Tungsten is used as heating element because its resistance is ……….

22. Tungsten is used as filament in the electric bulb because its melting points is …………

23. If a current of 6A flows through a 5Ω resistance for 10 minutes than heat developed in the resistance is ……….

24. When a current of IA flows through a conductor having potential difference of IV, the electric power is ………..

25. 746 watt is equivalent to ………..

26. In displays are used ………….

Answer:

1. Electric circuit, Ampere

2. Time (t), Work done (W)/charge (Q)

3. Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 16

4. Current is same, Potential difference is same

5. electrical into heat energy, chemical into electrical energy

6. V = IR, H = I2Rt

7. Kilowatt, want hour

8. 1joule1coulomb, 1volt1ampere

9. open, close

10. resistance, ohm

11. current, time

12. ampere

13. Ohm 15. R

14. Volt

15. R

16. 3 ohm

17. IR

18. more, conductors

19. greater

20. Current

21. high

22. high

23. 108 kJ

24. 1 W

25. 1 horse power

26. LED bulbs

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Current is the rate of flow of charges

2. The symbol of diode is

3. Potential = chargetime

4. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is V = IR

5. Nichrome is used in electric bulb.

6. The unit of conductance is mho.

7. The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistance.

8. In parallel connection the effective resistance is RP = R1+R2R1R2

9. Heat produced in a conductor is H = l²Rt

10. 1 kWh = 3.6 J.

11. An MCB is a switching device.

12. LED means Light Emitting Diode.

Answer:

1. True

2. True

3. False – Potential = Workdone(W)Charge(Q)

4. True

5. False – Nichrome is used in heating device.

6. True

7. True

8. False – In parallel connection, the effective resistance is RP = R1R2R1+R2

9. True

10. False – 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J

11. True

12. True

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:

(i) – (d)

(ii) – (c)

(iii) – (a)

(iv) – (b)

Question 2.

Match the components with symbols

Answer:

(i) – (d)

(ii) – (c)

(iii) – (b)

(iv) – (a)

Question 3.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:

(i) – (c)

(ii) – (d)

(iii) – (b)

(iv) – (a)

Question 4.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:

(i) – (d)

(ii) – (c)

(iii) – (b)

(iv) – (a)

Question 5.

Match the column I with column II.

Answer:

(i) – (e)

(ii) – (d)

(iii) – (a)

(iv) – (b)

Question 6.

Match the column I with column II:

Answer:

(i) – (d)

(ii) – (e)

(iii) – (a)

(iv) – (b)

Question 7.

Match the column I with column II:

Answer:

(i) – (e)

(ii) – (a)

(iii) – (d)

(iv) – (c)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.

Assertion: In a series system, equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistance.

Reason: The current that passes through each resistor is the same.

(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion,

(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Answer:

(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Question 2.

Assertion: In a parallel system, the total current is equal to the sum of the current through each resistor.

Reason: The potential difference across each resistor is the same.

(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.

(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false

(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Answer:

(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion: The unit of power watt is not frequently used in practice. Reason: it cannot be converted into Joule.

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.

Answer:

(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 4.

Assertion: A wire carrying a current has electric field around d.

Reason: A wire carrying current is stays electrically neutral.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason a re true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.

Assertion: In order to pass current through electric circuit, it must be closed.

Reason: In our home, the switch is ON, then the current flows through the bulb. So, the bulb glows.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.

Assertion: Resistance of a material opposes the flow of charges.

Reason: It is different for different materials.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.

Assertion: Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Reason: The unit of conductivity is Ohm.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 8.

Assertion: One end of the earthing wire is connected to a body of the electrical appliance and its other end is connected to a metal tube that is burried into the Earth.

Reason: The earth wire provides low resistance path to the electric current.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 9.

Assertion: The passage of electric current through a wire results in the production of heat.

Reason: The heating effect is used in electric heater electric iron etc.

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.

Assertion: One kilowatt hour is known as one unit of electrical energy.

Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106J

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer type Questions

Question 1.

If a charge of QC flows through a conductor in time t second then what is the value of current?

Answer:

Charge = Chargetime

I = Qt

Question 2.

What is the electric circuit?

Answer:

An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop.

(or)

path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires so as to connect an electric appliance to a source of electric charges (battery).

Question 3.

If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled than what happens its resistance?

Answer:

Resistance of a wire

R = plA ………. (1)

l’ = 2l

A’ = 2A

∴ New Resistance

R’ = l × 2l2A

R’ = plA …….. (2)

Form (1) and (2) it is found that resistance remains unchanged.

Question 4.

What is the unit of resistance and resistivity of a conductor?

Answer:

(i) The unit of resistance is ohm.

(ii) The unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

Question 5.

Define the unit of resistance? (or) Define one ohm.

Answer:

The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.

 Ohm =1 volt 1 ampere .

Question 6.

What is the unit of conductivity?

Answer:

The unit of conductivity is mho meter.

Question 7.

What is the value of one kilo watt hour?

Answer:

One kilowatt hour = 1000 W hr

1 kWh = 3.6 × 106J

Question 8.

What is the heating effect of electric current?

Answer:

The passage of electric current through a wire resulting in the production of heat. This phenomenon is called the heating effect of current. This heating effect of current is used in devices like electric heater, electric iron, etc.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.

What is an electric circuit?

Answer:

An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop (or) path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow.

Question 2.

Draw a circuit diagram to represent a simple electric circuit.

Answer:

Question 3.

What is the direction of conventional current?

Answer:

By convention, the direction of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge (or) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 4.

Define electric potential.

Answer:

The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Question 5.

What is meant by overloading?

Answer:

(i) Overloading happens when a large number of appliances are connected in series to the same source of electric power. This leads to a flow of excess current in the electric circuit.

(ii) When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 6.

What is meany by short circuit?

Answer:

When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short circuit’.

This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force.

Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires.

This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

Question 7.

Draw an electric circuit to understand Ohm’s law.

Answer:

Question 8.

Define resistance of a conductor.

Answer:

The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Question 9.

Define Resistance. Give its unit and conductance.

Answer:

The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Conductance: It is defined as the reciprocal of its resistance (R). Hence, the conductance ‘G’ of a conductor is given by

G=1R

Its unit is ohm-1. It is also represented as ‘mho’.

Question 10.

Define electrical resistivity of a material.

Answer:

The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section. Its unit is ohm metre.

Question 11.

What is meant by electrical conductivity?

Answer:

The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.

σ = 1p

Question 12.

Mention the differences between the combination of resistances in series and parallel.

Answer:

Question 13.

Write short notes about filament in electric bulbs.

Answer:

In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 14.

What is meant by electric power?

Answer:

The electric power is the product of the electric current and the potential difference due to which the current passes in a circuit.

Question 15.

What is meant by overloading of an electric circuit?

Answer:

When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 16.

What is meant by LED bulb?

Answer:

An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used.

Question 17.

W hat is meant by seven segment display? state its uses.

Answer:

(i) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text.

(ii) It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, microwave ovens, etc.

Question 18.

What do you know about LED television.

Answer:

LED Television is one of the most important applications of Light Emitting Diodes. An LED TV is actually an LCD TV (Liquid Crystal Display) with LED display. An LED display uses LEDs for backlight and an array of LEDs act as pixels. LEDs emitting white light are used in monochrome (black and white) TV; Red, Green and Blue (RGB) LEDs are used in colour television.

Question 19.

What is fuse wire?

Answer:

The function of fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from excess current due to overloading or a short circuit.

Question 20.

Draw a group between potential difference and current.

Answer:

Question 21.

Write short note about short circuit?

Answer:

When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short ‘ circuit’. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

VIII. Long answer questions.

Question 1.

Tabulate various components used in electrical circuit and their uses?

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 29

Question 2.

Explain series connection of parallel resistors.

Answer:

If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, you get a series – parallel circuit. Let R1 and R2 be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of Rp1. Similarly, let R3, and R4 be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of Rp2. Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series. Using equation we get

We get = R1 + R2 + R3 ……….(1)

Finally, using equation (1), the net effective resistance is given by

Rtotal = RP1 + RP2

Question 3.

Explain parallel connection of series resistors.

Answer:

If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, you get a parallel-series circuit. Let R1 and R2 be connected in series to give an effective resistance of RS1. Similarly, let R3 and R4 be connected in series to give an effective resistance of RS2. Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.

Using equation

RS = R1 + R2 + R3

We get RS1 = R1 + R2, RS2 = R3 + R4

Finally, using equation

1RP = 1R1 + 1R2 + 1R3

the net effective resistance is given by

1Rtotal = 1RS1 + 1RS2

Question 4.

Explain applications of heating effect.

Answer:

Electric Heating Device: The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric heater, geyser, etc. In these appliances Nichrome, which is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium is used as the heating element. Because:

(i) it has high resistivity,

(ii) it has a highmelting point,

(Hi) it is not easily oxidized.

Fuse Wire : The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Filament in bulbs : In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 5.

Write short notes about

(i) LED bulb

(ii) Seven segment display

Answer:

(i) An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used. With the help of the chemical compounds like Gallium Arsenide and Gallium Phosphide, the manufacturer can produce LED bulbs that radiates red, green, yellow and orange colours. Displays in digital watches and calculators, traffic signals, street lights, decorative lights, etc., are some examples for the use of LEDs.

(ii) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text. It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, micro wave ovens, etc. It consists of 7 segments of LEDs in the form of the digit 8. These seven LEDs are named as a, b, c, d, e, f and g. An extra 8th LED is used to display a dot.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.

An electric iron draws a current of 0.5 A when the voltage is 220 volts. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.

Answer:

I = Qt

Charge Q = ?

Charge I = 0.5 A

Time = 1 hour

= 60 × 60 s

Q = It

= 0.5 × 3600

= 1800 C

The amount of electric charge flowing = 1800 C

Question 2.

A current of 5A flows through a heater for 10 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through the electric circuit.

Answer:

Q = I × t

Current I = 5A

Time t = 10 × 60 = 600 s

= 5 × 600 = 3000 C

Question 3.

A torch bulb draws a current 0.6 A, when glowing from a source of 6 V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when glowing.

Answer:

V = IR

Current I = 0.6A

Potential V = 6V

R = ?

R = VI = 60.6 = 10Ω

The resistance of the bulb = 10Ω

Question 4.

Find the potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2 A in a wire of resistant 20Ω.

Answer:

V = IR

Current I = 0.2A

Resistance R = 20Ω

Potential difference V = ?

V = 0.2 × 20 = 4V

The potential difference in a wire = 4V

Question 5.

Calculate the amount of work done in moving charge of 25 C across two points having potential difference of 20V.

Answer:

W = QV

Charge Q = 25 C

Potential difference V = 20 V

W = 25 × 20 = 500 J

Question 6.

Three resistances are connected in an electrical circuit as shown in the circuit diagram. Determine the potential difference across resistance R2.

Answer:

For series connection, the effective resistance

RS = R1 + R2 + R3

= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω

Total potential = 12V

Amount of current flowing through the circuit

I = VRS = 12V6Ω = 2A

Potential difference across resistance R2

V = I × R2

= 2 × 2 = 4V

The potential difference across the resistance R2 = 4 V

Question 7.

In the given network, find the equivalent resistance between A and B.

Answer:

An equivalent of the given network is drawn in the relevant parts as follows: Resistance of the combination R1 and R2 is

RS = 5 + 5 = 10Ω

Resistance of the combination R1, R2 and R3 is

The resistance of series combination RP1 and R4 is RS1 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω

Resistance of the combination RS1 and R5 is

Resistance of the series combination RP2 and R6 is

RS2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω

Resistance of the combination RS2 and R7 is

Resistance of the series combination RP3 and R8 is

RP3 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω

Resistance of the combination RS3 and R9 is

Resistance of the series combination RP4 and R6 is

RS4 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω

Resistance of the combination RS4 and R8 is

∴ Resistance between A and B is 5Ω

Question 8.

For a given circuit calculate

(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.

(ii) the total current in the circuit

(iii) the current through each resistor.

Answer:

For parallel connection, the effective resistance

(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit

RP = 0.588Ω

(ii) Total current in the circuit

I = 10.2 A

(iii) Current through R1 = 6A

Current through R2 = 3A

Current through R3 = 1.2A

Question 9.

An electric iron a rating of 750 W, 220 V.

(i) Calculate current passing through it and

(ii) Its resistance when in use.

Answer:

P = VI

I = PV

Ohm’s law V = IR

(i) The amount of current passing

I = 3.4A

(ii) Resistance

R = 64.7Ω

Question 10.

Following graph was plotted between V and I values. What would be the values of VI ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V and 1.2 V?

Answer:

V1 = 0.8V, I1 = 32A; V2 = 1.2V; I2 = 48A

Question 11.

Three resistors of 2Ω, 4Ω and 8Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 3 V. Calculate

(i) Current through each resistor and

(ii) Total current in the circuit.

Answer:

Potential difference across each resistor is same.

(i) Current through each resistor:

(ii) Total current in the circuit: I = I1 + I2 + I3

I = 1.5 + 0.75 + 0. 375

I = 2.625 A

Question 12.

Two bulbs of 40 W and 60 W are connected in series to an external potential difference. Which bulb will glow brighter? Why?

Answer:

Let the external potential difference be 230 V

For 40 W bulb resistance is R

For 60 W bulb resistance is R

According to Ohm’s law

I = VR

Current flowing through 40 W bulb is

2301322.5 = 0.1739 A

Current flowing through 60 W bulb is

230881.6 = 0.2608 A

When bulbs are connected in series effective resistance is

RS = R1+ R2 = 1322.5 + 881.6

RS = 2204.1Ω

Net current

I = 2302204.1 = 0.1043 A

Using power equation P = I²R

For 40 W bulb P = I²R

= (0.1043)² × 1322.5

= (0.01087) × 1322.5 = 14.386 W

For 60 W bulb P = I²R

= (0.1043)² × 881.6

= (0.01087) × 881.6 = 9.5904 W

In a series system, higher the resistance, higher the brightness so, 40 W bulb glows brighter.

Question 13.

A wire is bent into a circle. The effective resistance across the diameter is 8Ω. Find the resistant if the wire.

Answer:

RP = 8Ω = resistance across diameter

1R + 1R = 18

2R = 18

R = 16Ω

x is the resistance of the wire.

x = 16 + 16 = 32Ω

x = 32Ω


X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.

A 60 W bulb is connected in parallel with a room heater. This combination is connected across the mains. If 60 W bulb is replaced by a 100 W bulb what happens to the heat produced by the heater? Given reason.

Answer:

Heat produced by the heater will be same. When the bulb and a heater are connected in parallel and this combination is connected across the mains, potential difference across each is the same equal to the voltage V of the mains irrespective of the resistance of the bulb.

If R is the resistance of the heater then heat produced by the heater will be V2R in both cases. Hence heat produces by heater will not be changed.

Question 2.

Two bulbs 60 W and 100 W are connected in series and this combination is connected to a d.c power supply. Will the potential difference across 60 W bulb be higher than that across 100 W bulb?

Answer:

60 W bulb has a higher resistance than the resistance across 100 W bulb since the power developed is P = V2R.

Potential difference across a bulb will be proportional to resistance. Hence potential difference across 60 W bulb is higher than that across 100 W bulb.

Question 3.

Super conductors has lowest resistance. Is it true. Give reason.

Answer:

True. When the temperature of super conductor is reduced to zero or near by zero its resistance becomes zero.

Question 4.

A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and radius of the wire is doubled then what happens to the heat produced in the wire?

Answer:

We know that resistance of a conducting wire is R = plA

Plπr2

If length l and radius r are doubled, then resistance will become half. But heat produced H = V2R.

Hence, heat produced per second will become thrice.

Question 5.

Calculate the effective resistance between A and B.

Answer:

Electricity 51

The electrical circuit can be redrawn as

Electricity 52

The resistance R1 and R2 are in series

RS = R1 + R2 = 2 + 2 = 4Ω

The resistance RS and R3 are in parallel

Electricity 53

∴ Effective resistance Reff= 1.33Ω

Question 6.

Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5Ω and 10Ω respectively. Calculate the ratio of radii of the two wires.

Answer:

Resistance

Electricity 54

∴ r1 : r2 = √2 : 1

Question 7.

An iron box of 400 W power is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, find the weekly expense on using the iron box.

Answer:

Power P = 400 W

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 55

Energy consumed = Power × Time

= 400 × 12 = 200 Wh

Energy consumed in one week= 200 × 7

= 1400 Wh = 1.4 kWh

= 1.4 unit

∴ Total cost per week = 1.4 × 0.75 = Rs 1.05

Weekly expense = Rs 1.05


Tamilnadu, board, ssc, science,   Chapter 3, Thermal Physics, samacheer kalvi,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

The value of universal gas constant:

(a) 3.81 mol-1 K-1

(b) 8.03 mol-1 K-1

(c) 1.38 mol-1 K-1

(d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1

Answer:

(d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1

Question 2.

If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:

(a) positive

(b) negative

(c) zero

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(b) negative

Question 3.

If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.

(a) X or -X

(b) Y or -Y

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) either (a) or (b).

Answer:

(c) both (a) and (b)

Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Question 4.

Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.

(a) difference in K.E and P.E

(b) sum of P.E and K.E

(c) difference in T.E and P.E

(d) difference in K.E and T.E

Answer:

(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.

In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 1

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

(b) A → B, A → C, B → C

(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C

(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C

Answer:

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

The value of Avogadro number ………..

The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.

One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through

According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

6.023 × 1023

Inter convertible

1 gram, 1°C

A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.

Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.

According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

True

True

False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Answer:

A. (s)

B. (t)

C. (p)

D. (q)

E. (r)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.

Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid

Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.

Answer:

1. (b)

2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.

Define one calorie.

Answer:

One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.

Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.

Answer:

Question 3.

What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?

Answer:

The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.

State Boyle’s law

Answer:

When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.

State-the law of volume.

Answer:

When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.

i.e., V ∝ T.

(or)

VT = constant.

Question 6.

Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.

Answer:

Question 7.

What is co-efficient of real expansion?

Answer:

Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K-1.

Question 8.

What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?

Answer:

Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.

The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.

Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).

Answer:

Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²

Initial temperature T1 = 90 K

Let Final temperature be T2K

A0 = 10 m²

Coefficient of superficial expansion is

αA = 0.0021 / k

ΔAA0 = αAΔT

110 = 0.0021 ΔT

∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10

= 0.021

T2 – T1 = 0.021

T2 – 90 = 0.021

∴ Final temperature T2 = 90.021 K

Question 2.

Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.

Answer:

Initial volume V0 = 0.25 m³

Final volume = 0.30 m³

Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³

Temperature ΔT = 50K

Coefficient of cubical expansion is

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 5

∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion

αv = 0.004 /K

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.

Derive the ideal gas equation.

Answer:

The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.

According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)

According to Charles’s law,

VT = constant ……… (2)

According to Avogadro’s law,

VT = constant …….. (3)

After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following

VnT = constant ……. (4)

The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N0.

i.e., n = µNA

Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as

PVµNAT = constant

The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be KB, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10-23 JK-1). Hence, we have the following equation:

PVµNAT = KB

PV = µNAKBT

µNAKB = R

which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol-1 K-1.

PV = RT

Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.

Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.

Answer:

To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L1. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L2. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L3. Now, the difference between the levels L1 and L3 is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L2 and L3 is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.

Real expansion = L3 – L2

Apparent expansion = L3 – L1

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.

If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?

Answer:

The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.

The commonly used scales of temperature are:

(a) Kelvin

(b) Celsius

(c) Fahrenheit

(d) All the above

Answer:

(d) All the above

Question 2.

Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.

(a) PT = nRV

(b) Pv = nRT

(c) PV = nRT

(d) PT = RV.

Answer:

(b) Pv = nRT

Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.

The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:

(a) 30 K

(b) 300 K

(c) 327 K

(d) 0 K

Answer:

(b) 300 K

Question 4.

Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.

(a) 0°C

(b) -100°C

(c) -273°C

(d) -212°C.

Answer:

(c) -273°C

Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273

at K = 0, C = -273°.

Question 5.

The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:

(a) K = 273 – C

(b) K = C + 273

(c) K=

(d) K = C

Answer:

(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.

Linear expansion is related to _____.

(a) area

(b) length

(c) volume

(d) mass.

Answer:

(b) length

Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.

For any exchange of heat:

(a) Heat gained = Zero

(b) Heat lost = Zero

(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

(d) Heat gained = -heat lost

Answer:

(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.

………. is the degree of hotness.

(a) Heat

(b) Calorie

(c) Joule

(d) Temperature

Answer:

(d) Temperature

Question 9.

Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.

(a) 6.023 × 1023

(b) 6.025 × 1025

(c) 6.24 × 1024

(d) 6.022 × 1022.

Answer:

(a) 6.023 × 1023

Hint: NA = 6.023 × 1023

Question 10.

If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.

(a) 273 K

(b) 600 K

(c) -527 K

(d) -273 K

Answer:

(b) 600 K

Question 11.

When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:

(a) Spirit has cooling effect.

(b) Spirit has boiling effect.

(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.

Answer:

(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.

Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.

(a) conduction

(b) radiation

(c) convection

(d) none of these.

Answer:

(c) convection

Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.

Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:

(a) 226 × 102 J

(b) 336 × 103 J

(c) 353 × 103 J

(d) 3 × 105 J

Answer:

(b) 336 × 103 J

Question 14.

Relation between α, β and γ is _____.

(a) α = β = γ

(b) α=β2=3γ

(c) α=β2=γ3

(d) α=β2=γ4.

Answer:

(c) α=β2=γ3

Hint: (c) α=β2=γ3 (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Question 15.

When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.

(a) Volume

(b) Temperature

(c) Mass

(d) Density

Answer:

(b) Temperature

Question 16.

Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:

(a) is in vapour state

(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.

(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

(d) cause bums by nature.

Answer:

(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.

Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?

(a) α, β

(b) α, γ

(c) γ, α

(d) β, α.

Answer:

(c) γ, α

Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.

According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:

(a) Heat gained by the surroundings

(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings

(c) Heat gained by the body

(d) None of the above

Answer:

(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.

The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:

(a) Less

(b) Temperature

(c) More

(d) None of the above

Answer:

(c) More

Question 20.

In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:

(a) Solid should not be heated less

(b) Solid should not be heated more

(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

(d) Volume does not change.

Answer:

(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.

The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:

(a) Pressure of atmosphere

(b) Temperature of atmosphere

(c) Humidity of atmosphere E

(d) All the above

Answer:

(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.

Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:

Answer:

(c) Vt = Vo (1 + t273)

Question 23.

At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.

(a) Less

(b) Some

(c) More

(d) No

Answer:

(c) More

Question 24.

The relationship between length (L0) of a body and change in temperature is:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 8

Answer:

(b) L0 = ΔLαLΔT

Question 25.

The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:

(a) °C

(b) K-1

(c) Cal

(d) Joule

Answer:

(b) K-1

Question 26.

Coefficient of superficial expansion:

(a) is same for all materials

(b) is infinity

(c) different for different materials

(d) is zero

Answer:

(c) different for different materials

Question 27.

The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is ΔAA0 =

(a) αA

(b) αAΔT

(c) αAΔT

(d) unity

Answer:

(b) αAΔT

Question 28.

According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:

(a) P ∝ V

(b) P = V

(c) P ∝1V

(d) V ∝ P

Answer:

(c) P ∝1V

Question 29.

At constant temperature of a gas:

(a) PV = 1

(b) PV = 0

(c) PV = infinity

(d) PV = constant

Answer:

(d) PV = constant

Question 30.

The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:

(a) V ∝ 1T

(b) TV = constant

(c) VT = constant

(d) V = T

Answer:

(c) VT = constant

Question 31.

If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:

(a) V ∝ 1n

(b) V ∝ n

(c) V = n

(d) nV = constant

Answer:

(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.

Vn = constant is the mathematical form of:

(a) Boyle’s law

(b) Charles’s law

(c) Avogadro’s law

(d) Dalton’s law

Answer:

(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.

Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:

(a) Vn = constant

(b) PT = constant

(c) VT = constant

(d) PV = constant

Answer:

(d) PV = constant

Question 34.

A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:

(a) Gas

(b) Ideal gas

(c) Perfect gas

(d) All the above

Answer:

(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.

The value of universal gas constant is:

(a) 3.81 J/mol/K

(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

(c) 8.13

(d) 6.81 J/mol/K

Answer:

(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 36.

The unit of universal gas constant is:

(a) JK

(b) J mol-1K

(c) J/mol/K

(d) J K-1 mol

Answer:

(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.

If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:

(a) natural gas

(b) bio gas

(c) real gas

(d) perfect gas

Answer:

(d) perfect gas

Question 38.

Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:

(a) PV = T

(b) P = RT

(c) PV = RT

(d) PV = R

Answer:

(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….

2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….

3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….

4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.

5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.

6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.

7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………

8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..

9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.

10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………

11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………

12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..

13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.

14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….

15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.

16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.

17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………

18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………

19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………

20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..

21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.

22. The equation of state of a gas is …………

23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….

24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………

Answer:

1. 17°C

2. 310 K

3.50°C

4. thermal equilibrium

5. Heat

6. mass

7. Heat gained, Heat lost

8. expansion

9. different, different

10. K-1

11. Temperature

12. K-1

13. inversely

14. Boyle’s law

15. directly proportional

16. number of atoms or molecules

17. 6.023 × 1023/mol

18. ideal gas

19. real gas

20. real gas

21. more

22. PV = RT

23. state of any gas

24. µNA, NA – Avogadro’s number

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × 59.

2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.

3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.

4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.

5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.

6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L0αLΔT

7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.

8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K-1.

9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.

10. According to Avogadro’s law Vn = constant

Answer:

1. True

2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273

3. True

4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.

5. True

6. True

7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.

8. True

9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.

10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.

Match the following:

Answer:

A – (s)

B – (t)

C – (p)

D – (q)

Question 2.

Match the following:

Answer:

A – (s)

B – (r)

C – (p)

D – (q)

Question 3.

Match the following:

Answer:

A – (t)

B – (s)

C – (p)

D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.

Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.

Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.

Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.

Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.

Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.

Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.

Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.

Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.

Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

Answer:

(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.

Define Temperature.

Answer:

Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.

Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer

Answer:

As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.

What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?

Answer:

The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.

What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?

Answer:

The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:

Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,

Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × 59.

0 K = -273°C.

Question 5.

Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.

Answer:

All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.

What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?

Answer:

There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.

What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?

Answer:

Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.

Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?

Answer:

Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.

What is meant by heating?

Answer:

The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.

What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?

Answer:

As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.

What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?

Answer:

Temperature of the substance rises.

The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.

Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.

Answer:

As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.

What is meant by linear expansion?

Answer:

When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.

Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.

Answer:

It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.

Size of molecules is negligibly small.

There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.

Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?

Answer:

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:

ΔLL0 = αLΔT

ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)

L0 – Original length

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αL – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 16.

What is meant by superficial expansion?

Answer:

If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.

Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.

Answer:

The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.

State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.

Answer:

ΔAA0 = αAΔT

ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)

A0 – Original area

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αA – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.

What is meant by cubical expansion?

Answer:

If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.

Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.

Answer:

ΔVV0 = αAΔT

ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)

V0 – Original volume

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αV – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.

What is real expansion of a liquid?

Answer:

If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.

What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?

Answer:

The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.

State Avogadro’s law.

Answer:

Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.

i.e., V α n

(or) Vn = constant

Question 24.

What is Avogadro’s number?

Answer:

Avogadro’s number (NA) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 1023/mol.

Question 25.

What are real gases?

Answer:

If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Question 26.

What is a perfect gas?

Answer:

If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.

What is an ideal gas equation?

Answer:

The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.

Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?

Answer:

Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.

Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.

Answer:

Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.

Transform 100°C into K.

Answer:

T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K

= (273 + 100) K

= 373 K

100°C = 373 K

Question 2.

Convert 23 K into °C.

Answer:

T = 23 K

T°C = K – 273

= 23 – 273

= -250°C

23 K = -250°C

Question 3.

If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10-6 °C.

Solution:

L0 = 66 m = 6600 cm

α = 11 × 10-6 °C.

∆L = Lt – L0 = 3.63

t1 = 10°C

t2 = ?

α=ΔLLoΔT

ΔT=ΔLL0×αΔT=3.636600×11×10−6

∆T = t2 – t1 = 50

⇒ t2 – 10 = 50

⇒ t2 = 50 + 10 = 60°C

so final temperature t2 = 60°C

Question 4.

At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?

Answer:

Let TB = TB – x

∴ 180x = 100x – 3200

80x = -3200

x = –320080 = -40°

x = -40°

∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Question 5.

On heating a glass block of 105 cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of

(i) Cubical expansion and

(ii) Linear expansion

Answer:

Volume V0 = 105 cm³

Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C

Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³

(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is

αV = 26.67 × 10-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is

αL = αV3

αL = 26.673 × 10-6

αL = 8.89 × 10-6/°C

Question 6.

A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m3 at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.

Solution:

Given, P1 = 76 cm Hg, P2 = 7.6 cm of Hg

V1 = 30 m3, V2 = ?

T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K

T2 = -54 + 273 = 219 K

By gas equation

P1V1T1=P2V2T2

V2=P1V1T2T1P2=76×30×219300×7.6 = 219 m3

So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m3.

Question 7.

If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.

Answer:

ΔAA = 0.22% = 0.22100

Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C

∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion

= 22 × 10-6/°C

Question 8.

Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.

Answer:

Pressure P = 1.013 × 105 pa

Volume V = 22.4 lit I

= 22.4 × 10-3 m³

Temperature T = 273 K

For one mole of a gas

PV = RT

∴ R = PVT

= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.

When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?

Answer:

Initial pressure P1 = P

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 16

PT + 0.004PT = PT + P

0.004PT = P

∴ T = 10.004

= 250 K

∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.

A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O2 and 0.2 mole of CO2 . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.

Answer:

n1 = 0.1; n2 = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;

Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10-6 m³

Pressure P = P1 + P2

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 17

P = 3.74 × 105 pa

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.

Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.

Answer:

Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:

(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.

Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.

Explain linear expansion in Solids.

Answer:

When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 18

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:

ΔLL0 = αLΔT

ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)

L0 – Original length

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αL – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.

Write a note on superficial expansion.

Answer:

If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 19

ΔAA0 = αAΔT

ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)

A0 – Original area

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αA – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.

What do you know about cubical expansion?

Answer:

If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K-1.

The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:

ΔVV0 = αVΔT

ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)

V0 – Original volume

ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)

αV – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.

At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?

Answer:

A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.

At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.

Answer:

The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.

Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?

Answer:

It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.

When does the Charle’s law fail?

Answer:

By Charle’s law at constant pressure

V ∝ T or T ∝ V

At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.

When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?

Answer:

When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.

A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.

Answer:

The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Question 7.

Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.

Answer:

No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.


Tamilnadu, board, ssc, science,   Chapter 2, Optics, samacheer kalvi,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.

The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31,1.43,1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer:

(a) A

Question 2.

Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens:

(a) f

(b) 2f

(c) infinity

(d) between f and 2f

Answer:

(b) 2f

Question 3.

Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex lens ______.

(a) f

(b) 2f

(c) infinity

(d) between f and 2f.

Answer:

(b) 2f

Question 4.

Magnification of a convex lens is _____.

(a) positive

(b) negative

(c) either positive or negative

(d) zero.

Answer:

(b) negative

Question 5.

A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at:

(a) focus

(b) infinity

(c) at 2f

(d) between f and 2f

Answer:

(b) infinity

Question 6.

Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is:

(a) 4 m

(b) -40 m

(c) -0.25 m

(d) -2.5 m

Answer:

(d) -2.5 m

Question 7.

In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed _____.

(a) behind the retina

(b) on the retina

(c) in front of the retina

(d) on the blind spot.

Answer:

(c) in front of the retina

Question 8.

The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by:

(a) convex lens

(b) concave lens

(c) convex mirror

(d) Bi focal lenses

Answer:

(d) Bi focal lenses

Question 9.

Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?

(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm

(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm

(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm

(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

Answer:

(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

Question 10.

If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?

(a) VB = VG = VR

(b) VB > VG > VR

(c) VB < VG < VR

(d) VB < VG > VR

Answer:

(c) VB < VG < VR

II. Fill in the blanks.

The path of the light is called as ………

The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ……….

If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the ………. scattering of light is called as scattering ……….

According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ……….

Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ……….

Answer:

III. True or False. If false correct it.

Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium.

The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens.

Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’

The convex lens always gives small virtual image.

Answer:

False – Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium than in denser medium.

True

True

False – The convex lens does not give small virtual image always.

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. d

2. a

3. e

4. b

5. c

V. Assertion and reasoning type.

Mark the correct choice as-

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

1. Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small

Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light.

2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.

Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.

Answer:

1. (a)

2. (a)

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.

What is refractive index?

Answer:

Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium.

Question 2.

State Snell’s law.

Answer:

The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.

sinisinr

=

µ1

Question 3.

Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.

Answer:

Question 4.

Define dispersion of light.

Answer:

When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.

State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.

Answer:

Rayleigh’s scattering law states that, “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.

Amount of scattering ‘S’ ∝

1

Question 6.

Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 3

Question 7.

What is the power of accommodation of the eye?

Answer:

The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called the power of accommodation of the eye.

This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 8.

What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?

Answer:

The lengthening of eye ball.

The focal length of eye lens is reduced.

The distance between eye lens and retina increases.

The far point will not be at infinity.

The far point comes closer.

Question 9.

Why does the sky appear blue in colour?

Answer:

When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear blue in colour.

Question 10.

Why are traffic signals red in colour?

Answer:

Red light has the highest wavelength.

It is scattered by atmospheric particles.

So red light is able to travel the longest distance through a fog, rain etc.

VII. Give the answer in detail.

Question 1.

List any five properties of light?

Answer:

Light is a form of energy.

Light always travels along a straight line.

Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through a vacuum.

The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 108 ms-1

Since light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (λ) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = vλ (c = velocity of light).

Different coloured light has a different wavelength and frequency.

Question 2.

Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.

Answer:

Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule-2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule-3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.

Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia.

Answer:

Question 4.

Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.

Answer:

Construction : A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working : The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u > F0). A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens. This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (B’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece. This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A”B”) on the same side of the object.

Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.

An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.

Answer:

Distance of an object u = 20 cm

Focal length of a convex lens f = 10 cm

Let the image distance be v

We know

v = 20 cm

Magnification m =

vu

=

2020

= 1

Hence a real image of same size is formed at 20 cm.

Image distance = 20 cm

Question 2.

An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.

Answer:

Object distance u = 10 cm

Focal length of a concave lens f= -15 cm

Let v be the image distance,

Distance of image v = 6 cm

Magnification m =

vu

=

Where h’ – height of image

h – height of object

0.6 =

h′

∴ h’ = 3 × 0.6 = 1.8 cm

∴ Height of image = 1.8 cm

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.

While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,

(a) can he get the image?

(b) Is there any change in the focal length?

Answer:

(a) He can get the image.

(b) The focal length of the lens will be doubled.

Question 2.

The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?

Answer:

The large pupil opens wider and allows the maximum amount of light to enter the eye in the dark.

Their lens is large and situated near the retina. This also allows a lot of light to register on the retina. The retina contains 2 types of light-sensing cells rods and cones.

Cones are responsible for the coloured vision and require bright, focused light.

Rods are extremely sensitive to light and have a photosensitive pigment called rhodopsin which plays a vital role in night vision.

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.

The scattering of sun light by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the Earth’s atmosphere is known as:

(a) Mie scattering

(b) Tyndall scattering

(c) Rayleigh scattering

(d) Raman scattering

Answer:

(c) Rayleigh scattering

Question 2.

Mie scattering is responsible for the _____ appearance of the clouds.

(a) red

(b) blue

(c) colourless

(d) white.

Answer:

(d) white

Question 3.

In an inelastic scattering the energy of the incident beam of light is ……….. that of scattering beam.

(a) greater than

(b) less than

(c) equal to

(d) different from

Answer:

(d) different from

Question 4.

As per Rayleigh’s scattering law, amount of scattering is:

(a) directly proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

(c) inversely proportioanl to square of wavelength

(d) directly proportional to square of wavelength

Answer:

(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

Question 5.

The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the _____ of the light.

(a) wavelength

(b) strength

(c) density

(d) refraction.

Answer:

(a) wavelength

Question 6.

The scattering of light by colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called:

(a) Raman scattering

(b) Tyndall scattering

(c) Mie scattering

(d) Elastic scattering

Answer:

(b) Tyndall scattering

Question 7.

A piece of transparent material bounded by curved surfaces is called:

(a) mirror

(b) prism

(c) slab

(d) lens

Answer:

(d) lens

Question 8.

If the energy of the incident and the scattered beam of light are not the same, then it is called as _____.

(a) Elastic

(b) Raman

(c) Inelastic

(d) Mie.

Answer:

(c) Inelastic

Question 9.

A convex lens does not produce:

(a) real magnified image

(b) virtual magnified image

(c) virtual diminished image

(d) real diminished image

Answer:

(c) virtual diminished image

Question 10.

A lens which is thicker in the middle than at the edges is known as:

(a) concave lens

(b) convex lens

(c) bifocal lens

(d) cylindrical lens

Answer:

(b) convex lens

Question 11.

The object is always placed on the _____ side of the lens.

(a) left

(b) right

(c) top

(d) bottom.

Answer:

(a) left

Question 12.

The parallel rays from the outer edge are deviated towards the middle in a:

(a) convex mirror

(b) concave lens

(c) concave mirror

(d) convex lens

Answer:

(d) convex lens

Question 13.

The light rays passing through the optic centre will:

(a) diverged

(b) scattered

(c) converged

(d) emerge undeviated

Answer:

(d) emerge undeviated

Question 14.

All the distances are measured from the ______ of the lense.

(a) centre of curvature

(b) optical centre

(c) principal focus

(d) infinity.

Answer:

(b) optical centre

Question 15.

A ray passing through the principal focus and incident on the lens will:

(a) converge

(b) diverge

(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis

(d) not emerge out

Answer:

(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis

Question 16.

When the object is placed at infinity from the convex lens, the image is formed at:

(a) F

(b) C

(c) infinity

(d) between F and 2F

Answer:

(a) F

Question 17.

The human eye is ____ in nature.

(a) convex

(b) concave

(c) transparent glass

(d) Plano – concave.

Answer:

(a) convex

Question 18.

The image formed by a concave lens is:

(a) virtual

(b) diminished

(c) virtual and diminished

(d) virtual and enlarged

Answer:

(c) virtual and diminished

Question 19.

To get a real image using convex lens, the object must be placed at:

(a) infinity

(b) principal focus

(c) beyond principal focus and infinity

(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer:

(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 20.

_____ is the centre part of the iris.

(a) cornea

(b) retina

(c) pupil

(d) eye lens.

Answer:

(c) pupil

Question 21.

For a convex lens the point at which the parallel rays converge is called of the lens.

(a) pole

(b) centre of curvature

(c) principal focus

(d) none

Answer:

(c) principal focus

Question 22.

A real image formed by a convex lens is always:

(a) erect

(b) magnified

(c) inverted

(d) diminished

Answer:

(c) inverted

Question 23.

The law of distances is given by:

Answer:

(b)

1f

=

v−ff

Question 30.

The unit of power is:

(a) m

(b) ohm

(C) dioptre

(d) ampere

Answer:

(C) dioptre

Question 31.

If the focal length of a convex lens is 1 m then its power is:

(a) 1 dioptre

(b) 0.1 dioptre

(c) 10 dioptre

(d) 0.01 dioptre

Answer:

(a) 1 dioptre

Question 32.

In a simple microscope, the magnification can be increased by:

(a) lens of long focal length

(b) lens

(c) lens of short focal length

(d) lens of infinite focal length

Answer:

(c) lens of short focal length

Question 33.

Convex lenses are used:

(a) as camera lenses

(b) as magnifying lenses

(c) to correct hypermetropia

(d) all the above

Answer:

(d) all the above

Question 34.

Which lens is used in wide angle spyhole in doors?

(a) convex lens

(b) concave lens

(c) cylindrical lens

(d) parabolic lens

Answer:

(b) concave lens

Question 35.

The mathematical form of lens maker’s formula is:

Answer:

(a)

Question 36.

If f is the focal length of the lens then its power is given by:

(a) P =

2f

(b) p =

(c) p = f

(d) p = f1

Answer:

(b) p =

1f

Question 37.

Which part of the human eye changes the focal length of the eye lens?

(a) pupil

(b) retina

(c) ciliary muscles

(d) cornea

Answer:

(c) ciliary muscles

Question 38.

On which part of human eye, image is formed?

(a) cornea

(b) iris

(c) retina

(d) pupil

Answer:

(c) retina

Question 39.

For normal human eye the value of near point is:

(a) 25 cm

(b) 25 m

(c) 2.5 m

(d) 25 mm

Answer:

(a) 25 cm

Question 40.

In hypermeteropia, the focal length of the eye lens is:

(a) decreased

(b) remains the same

(c) increased

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(c) increased

Question 41.

Presbyopia can be corrected by using:

(a) convex lens

(b) bifocal lens

(c) concave lens

(d) cylindrical lens

Answer:

(b) bifocal lens

Question 42.

Astigmatism can be corrected by using:

(a) bifocal lens

(b) cylindrical lens

(c) convex lens

(d) concave lens

Answer:

(b) cylindrical lens

Question 43.

The magnifying power of compound microscope is:

(a) 10

(b) 20

(c) 50

(d) 50 to 200

Answer:

(d) 50 to 200

Question 44.

The accuracy of travelling microscope is of the order of:

(a) 0.01 cm

(b) 0.01 mm

(c) 0.1 mm

(d) 0.1 cm

Answer:

(b) 0.01 mm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The velocity of light in vacuum is ……….

2. If v is the frequency and λ is the wavelength then velocity of the wave is c = ……….

3. Among colours of visible light ……… colour has the highest wavelength.

4. According to Snell’s law refractive index, µ2 = ……….

5. In a medium having high value of refractive index then speed of light in that medium is ……….

6. Angle of refraction is the smallest for ……… and the highest for ……….

7. The refractive index depends on ………. of light.

8. Colours having shorter wavelength scattered more than longer wavelength colours according to ……….. law.

9. After passing through a convex lens ……….. rays ………. at the principal focus.

10. For a convex lens, as the object distance increases, the image distance ……….

11. A ray passing through the optic centre of a lens emerges …………

12. ……… is due to irregular curvature of the surface of the eye lens.

13. When a parallel beam of light passes through a convex lens, the rays from the outer edges are …………

14. A ray parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens after refraction passes through …………

15. When the object is placed between ………….. and ………… of a convex lens a virtual image will be formed.

16. For a convex lens, as the object approaches the lens the image becomes …………

17. In a phographic camera ………… lens is used.

18. The shorter the focal length, the ………. is the magnification.

19. The nature of the image formed by a simple microscope is ……….., ………… and …………

20. Real images are formed by a ……….. lens.

21. Concave lens produces ………… images.

22. The value of power of a lens having focal length one metre is ………..

23. For a normal eye the value of far point is …………

24. …………. is known as short sightedness.

25. Hyper metropia is known as ………..

26. The mathematical form of focal length of a concave lens used to correct myopia is f = ……….

27. ……….. lenses are used to correct astigmatism.

28. For a normal eye, the value of least distance of distinct vision is ………..

29. The objective of the compound microscope has …………. focal length.

30. The focal length of ………. is greater in a compound microscope.

31. ……… is an optical instrument to see the distant objects.

32. A terrestrial telescope produces ……… image.

33. Elaborate view of galaxies and planets is obtained by ………

Answer:

1. 3 × 108 m/s

2. vλ

3. red

4.

sinisinr

5. low

6. red, violet

7. wavelength

8. Rayleigh scattering

9. parallel, converge

10. will decrease

11. undeviated

12. Astigmatism

13. deviated towards the centre of the lens

14. the principal focus

15. principal focus, optical centre

16. bigger

17. biconvex

18. greater

19. virtual, erect, magnified

20. convex

21. virtual

22. One dioptre

23. infinity

24. Myopia

25. long sightedness

26. xy/x – y

27. Cylindrical

28. 25 cm

29. shorter

30. eye piece

31. Telescope

32. an erect

33. Telescope

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Light does not travel along a straight line.

2. All coloured light has same wavelength.

3. In refraction incident ray, refracted ray and normal lie in the same plane.

4. Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium is greater than that in denser medium.

5. For red colour angle of refraction is the least.

6. The refractive index of a medium ¡s independent of wavelength.

7. Tyndall scattering, is the scattering of light by colloids.

8. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, red colour is scattered to a greater extent than blue colour.

9. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter is larger than the wavelength of the incident light.

10. The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies lower than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.

11. In front of a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity the formed image is smaller than that of the object.

12. When an object is placed at finite distance from the concave lens a virtual image is formed between optical centre and focus of the concave lens.

13. Pupil of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.

14. For a normal human eye, the value of far point is 25 cm.

15. Astigmatism is corrected by cylindrical lenses.

Answer:

1. False – Light always travels along a straight lines.

2. False – Different coloured light has different wavelength.

3. True

4. True

5. True

6. False – The refractive index of a medium depends on wavelength.

7. True

8. False – According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than red colour.

9. True

10. False – The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.

11. True

12. True

13. False – Cornea of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.

14. False – For a normal human eye, the value of near point is 25 cm.

15. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Match the column I with column II.

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (ii)

Question 2.

Position of the object placed infront of a convex lens are given in Column

I. Match them with the natures of the images formed by the convex lens given in column II.

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (ii)

Question 3.

Match the following:

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (ii)

Question 4.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (iii)

C. (ii)

D. (i)

Question 5.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 18

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (i)

C. (ii)

D. (iii)

Question 6.

Match the column I with column II.

Answer:

A. (iii)

B. (i)

C. (iv)

D. (ii)

Question 7.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (iii)

C. (ii)

D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reasoning type.

Question 1.

Assertion : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and sunset than during day.

Reason : In detraction light rays bend around the edges of the obstacle.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion: Colours can be scan in thin layers of oil on the surface water. Reason: White light is composed of several colours.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion: Raman spectrum of a liquids contains lines whose frequencies are not equal to that of incident radiation.

Reason: If a photon strikes an atom in a liquid that is in existed state photon losses energy.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the material of the prism.

Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends upon the refracting angle and angel of minimum deviation.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 5.

Assertion: A single lens produces a coloured image of an object illuminated by white light.

Reason: The refractive index of material of lens is different for different wavelength of light.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 6.

Assertion: If a convex lens is placed in water, its convergence power decrease.

Reason: Focal length of lens is independent of refractive index of the medium.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 7.

Assertion: Light waves travel in straight lines.

Reason: Rectilinear propagation of light confirm the above mentioned properly.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 8.

Assertion: Raman scattering the scattering of monochromatic light by atoms and molecule of a liquid.

Reason: The wavelength of Raman lines is same.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 9.

Assertion: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length.

Reason: The unit of power is one dioptre when the unit of focal length is one metre.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 10.

Assertion: Presbyopia is due to ageing of human beings.

Reason: For those persons, ciliary muscles of the eye become weak.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer:

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.

What is meant by refraction?

Answer:

When a ray of light travels from one transparent medium into another obliquely, the path of the light undergoes deviation. This deviation of ray of light is called refraction.

Question 2.

State laws of refraction.

Answer:

First law of refraction: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Second law of refraction: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.

sinisinr

=

µ1

Question 3.

Define refractive index of a medium.

Answer:

The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as refractive index ‘p’ of that medium.

Question 4.

What is meant by monochromatic source?

Answer:

If a source of light produces a light of single colour, it is known as a monochromatic source.

Question 5.

When white light is refracted by a transparent medium what will you get? Why?

Answer:

When white light is refracted by a transparent medium, a spectrum is obtained.

This is because, different coloured lights are bent through different angles.

Question 6.

What is scattering of light?

Answer:

When sunlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, the atoms and molecules of different gases present in the atmosphere refract the light in all possible directions. This is called as ‘Scattering of light’.

Question 7.

State the types of scattering.

Answer:

Elastic scattering

Inelastic scattering

Question 8.

What is elastic scattering?

Answer:

If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

Question 9.

What is inelastic scattering?

Answer:

If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 10.

How are different types of scattering formed? Mention the types of scattering.

Answer:

The nature and size of the scatterer results in different types of scattering. They are

Rayleigh scattering

Mie scattering

Tyndall scattering

Raman scattering

Question 11.

What is Rayleigh scattering?

Answer:

The scattering of sunlight by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the earth’s atmosphere is known as Rayleigh scattering.

Question 12.

Why the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset?

Answer:

At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon. Hence, most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 13.

When does Mie scattering take place?

Answer:

Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.

Question 14.

What are the causes of Mie scattering?

Answer:

Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.

Question 15.

Why the clouds have white appearance?

Answer:

Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 16.

What is Tyndall Scattering?

Answer:

The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called Tyndall Scattering or Tyndall Effect.

Question 17.

What is meant by colloid? State few examples.

Answer:

Colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material. Eg: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 18.

What is meant by Raman Scattering?

Answer:

When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

Question 19.

Define Raman Scattering.

Answer:

Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 20.

What is Rayleigh line?

Answer:

The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’.

Question 21.

What are Raman lines?

Answer:

The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’.

Question 22.

What are stokes lines and Antistokes lines?

Answer:

The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 23.

What is a lens?

Answer:

A lens is an optically transparent medium bounded by two spherical refracting surfaces or one plane and one spherical surface.

Question 24.

How is lens classified?

Answer:

Lens is basically classified into two types. They are:

Convex Lens

Concave Lens.

Question 25.

What is biconvex lens?

Answer:

Convex or bi-convex lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thicker at the centre than at the edges. A beam of light passing through it, is converged to a point. So, a convex lens is also called as converging lens.

Question 26.

What is meant by biconcave lens?

Answer:

Concave or bi-concave Lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thinner at the centre than at the edges. A parallel beam of light passing through it, is diverged or spread out. So, a concave lens is also called as diverging lens.

Question 27.

What are

(i) Plano-convex lens?

(ii) Plano-concave lens?

Answer:

(i) If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a plano-convex lens.

(ii) If one of the faces of a bi-concave lens is plane, it is known as a plano-concave lens.

Question 28.

State the applications of convex lenses.

Answer:

Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.

They are used as magnifying lenses.

They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.

They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 29.

Draw diagrams of different types converging lenses.

Answer:

Question 30.

Represent different types of lenses by diagram.

Answer:

Question 31.

What is the nature of the image formed by an object is placed behind the centre of curvature of a convex leas. Draw a ray diagram.

Answer:

When an object is placed behind the center of curvature (beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

Question 32.

Draw a ray diagram to indicate the nature of the image formed when an object is placed in between the centre of curvature and principal focus of a convex lens.

Answer:

When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

Question 33.

Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image (by the concave lens) when object is at infinity.

Answer:

When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Question 34.

What are the applications of concave lens?

Answer:

Concave lenses are used as eye lens of‘Galilean Telescope’.

They are used in wide angle spy hole in doors.

They are used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’.

Question 35.

What do you know about lens formula?

Answer:

The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as

1f

=

1u

Question 36.

Define magnification.

Answer:

It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’. If height of the object is h and height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by lens is,

Question 37.

What is lens formula?

Answer:

The lens formula relates the focal length of a lens with the distance of object and image.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 28

where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 38.

What is meant by power of lens?

Answer:

The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) light rays is called as its power.

Question 39.

Define power of a lens. State its unit.

Answer:

Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.

P =

1f

The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 40.

What is meant by dioptre.

Answer:

Dioptre is the power of a lens, whose focal length is 1 metre.

1 Dioptre = 1 m-1.

Question 41.

Differentiate convex lens from concave lens.

Answer:

Question 42.

What are

(i) Pupil &

(ii) Retina?

Answer:

(i) Pupil: It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.

(ii) Retina: This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Question 43.

What is persistence of vision?

Answer:

If the time interval between two consecutive light pulses is less than 0.1 second, human eye cannot distinguish them separately. It is called persistence of vision.

Question 44.

What is least distance of distinct vision?

Answer:

The minimum distance required to see the objects distinctly without strain is called least distance of distinct vision. It is called as near point of eye. It is 25 cm for normal human eye.

Question 45.

What is far point?

Answer:

The maximum distance up to which the eye can see objects clearly is called as far point of the eye.

Question 46.

What is Presbyopia?

Answer:

Due to ageing, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye-lens become rigid (inflexible) and so the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an aged person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. So, it is also called as ‘old age hypermetropia’.

Question 47.

What is meant by astigmatism?

Answer:

In this defect, eye cannot see parallel and horizontal lines clearly. It may be inherited or acquired. It is due to the imperfect structure of eye lens because of the development of cataract on the lens, ulceration of cornea, injury to the . refracting surfaces, etc. Astigmatism can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses (Torrid lenses).

Question 48.

State the principle of microscope. How is it classified?

Answer:

It works under the principle of angular magnification of lenses. It is classified as

Simple microscope

Compound microscope

Question 49.

What are the uses of simple microscope?

Answer:

Simple microscopes are used

By watch repairers and jewellers.

To read small letters clearly.

To observe parts of flower, insects etc.

To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 50.

How is telescope classified?

Answer:

According to optical property, it is classified into two groups:

refracting telescope

reflecting telescope

Question 51.

Mention the advantages of telescope.

Answer:

Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.

Camera can be attached for taking photograph for the celestial objects.

Telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Question 52.

What are the disadvantages of telescope?

Answer:

Frequent maintenance is needed.

It is not easily portable.

VII. Give the answer in Detail.

Question 1.

State the Laws of Refraction.

Answer:

The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Second law of Refraction:

The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.

sinisinrμ1

Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.

The speed of light in a medium is low if the refractive index of the medium is high and vice versa.

When light travels from a denser medium into a rarer medium, the refracted ray is bent away from the normal drawn to the interface.

When light travels from a rarer medium into a denser medium, the refracted ray is bent towards the normal drawn to the interface.

Question 2.

Describe Raman Scattering.

Answer:

When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

The scattered light contains some additional frequencies (or wavelengths) other than that of incident frequency (or wavelength). This is known as Raman scattering or Raman Effect.

Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’ and the spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’. The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 3.

With the help of ray diagram, explain the nature, size and position of the image formed by a convex lens. When object is placed at

(i) infinity

(ii) beyond C

(iii) placed at C

(iv) Placed between F and C,

(v) placed at F

(vi) placed between F and optical centre O.

Answer:

(i) Object at infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a real image is formed at the principal focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

(ii) Object placed beyond C (>2F): When an object is placed behind the center of curvature(beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. Th e size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iii) Object placed at C: When an object is placed at the center of curvature, a real and inverted image is formed at the other center of curvature. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

(iv) Object placed between F and C: When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.

(v) Object placed at the principal focus F: When an object is placed at the focus, a real image is formed at infinity. The size of the image is much larger than that of the object.

(vi) Object placed between the principal focus F and optical centre O: When an object is placed in between principal focus and optical centre, a virtual image is formed. The size of the image is larger than that of the object.

Question 4.

Explain the formation of images formed by a concave lens.

Answer:

Object at Infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.

Object anywhere on the principal axis at a finite distance: When an object is placed at a finite distance from the lens, a virtual image is formed between optical center and focus of the concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

But, as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased, the distance between the image and the lens also keeps decreasing. Further, the size of the image formed increases as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased.

Question 5.

Explain Mie Scattering.

Answer:

Mie scattering:

Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light. It is also an elastic scattering.

The amount of scattering is independent of wavelength.

Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.

Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.

When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which, together form the white light.

Question 6.

With the help of a diagram, explain the structure and working of human eye.

Answer:

Structure of the eye:

The eye ball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. It consists of a tough membrane called sclera, which protects the internal parts of the eye.

Cornea : This is the thin and transparent layer on the front surface of the eyeball as shown in figure. It is the main refracting surface. When light enters through the cornea, it refracts or bends the light on to the lens.

Iris : It is the coloured part of the eye. It may be blue, brown or green in colour. Every person has a unique colour, pattern and texture. Iris controls amount of light entering into the pupil like camera aperture.

Pupil : It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.

Retina : This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Ciliary muscles : Eye lens is fixed between the ciliary muscles. It helps to change the focal length of the eye lens according to the position of the object.

Eye Lens : It is the important part of human eye. It is convex in nature.

Working of the eye : The transparent layer cornea bends the light rays through pupil located at the centre part of the Iris. The adjusted light passes through the eye lens. Eye lens is convex in nature. So, the light rays from the objects are converged and a real and inverted image is formed on retina. Then, retina passes the received real and inverted image to the brain through optical nerves. Finally, the brain senses it as erect image.

Question 7.

Describe simple microscope.

Answer:

Simple microscope: It has a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small objects.

Let an object (AB) is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’), The image formed is in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D) (For normal human eye D = 25 cm).

Question 8.

Write short notes on

(i) Astronomical telescope

(ii) Terrestrial telescope.

Answer:

(i) Astronomical Telescope: An astronomical telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets, galaxies and satellites.

(ii) Terrestrial Telescope: The image in an astronomical telescope is inverted. So, it is not suitable for viewing objects on the surface of the Earth. Therefore, a terrestrial telescope is used. It provides an erect image. The major difference between astronomical and terrestrial telescope is erecting the final image with respect to the object.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.

A needle of size 5 cm is placed 45 cm from a lens produced an image on a screen placed 90 cm away from the lens.

Answer:

(i) Identify the types of lens.

Calculate focal length of the lens.

Height of the object h1 = 5 cm

Distance of the object u = -45 cm

Distance of the image v = 90 cm

We know that

Focal length of the lens = 30 cm

Since focal length is positive the lens is convex lens.

(ii) Identify the size of the image

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 42

∴ h2 = -10 cm

The negative sign indicates that the image is real and inverted.

Question 2.

A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image 10 cm from the lens?

Answer:

v = -10 cm; f =-15 cm; u = ?

Lens formula:

1f

=

= +0.33

Question 4.

The focal length of a concave lens is 2 cm. Calculate the power of the lens.

Answer:

Formula:

P =

1f

Type of lens is concave lens.

Focal length of concave lens,

f = -2 m power of the lens.

P =

1−2m

P = -0.5 dioptre

Question 5.

A needle placed at 30 cm from the lens forms an image on a screen placed 60 cm on the other side of the lens. Identify the type of lens and determine the focal length.

Answer:

u = -30 cm

v = 60 cm

u is negative because image is formed on the on the other side of the lens.

It is a convex lens.

Question 6.

A 3 cm tall bulb is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a diverging lens having a focal length of 10.5 cm. Determine the distance of the image.

Answer:

u = -20 cm

f = -10.5 cm

The distance of the image is -6.88 cm

Question 7.

A ray from medium 1 is refracted below while passing through medium 2. Find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to medium 1.

Answer:

Refractive index µ

Refractive index = 0.707

Question 8.

The optical prescription of a pair of spectacle is

Right eye: -3.5 D, Left eye: -4.00 D.

(i) Name the defect of the eye.

Answer:

Shortsighted (Myopia)

(ii) Are these lenses thinner at the middle or at the edges?

Answer:

These lenses are thinner in the middle.

(iii) Which lens has a greater focal length?

Answer:

power =

1focallength

Right eye: power P = -3.5 D

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 47

Left eye: Power P = -4 D

Hence the lens having power of -3.5 D has greater focal length.

Question 9.

The radii of curvature of two surfaces of a double convex lens are 10 cm each. Calculate its focal length and power of the lens in air and liquid. Refractive indices of glass and liquid are 1.5 and 1.8 respectively.

Answer:

Radius of curvature of first surface R1 = 10 cm

Radius of curvature of second surface R2 = 10 cm

In air

pl = -3.33 d

Question 10.

An object 2 cm tall is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.

Answer:

Focal length of a convex lens f = 15 × 10-2 m

Weight of the object ho = 2 × 10-2 m

Let weight of the image be hv

Distance of the object u = 10 × 10-2 m

Distance of the image v = 15 × 10-2 m

We know

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 50

∴ v = -30 × 10-2 m

Distance of the image = 30 × 10-2 m

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 51

Hence a virtual image 6 × 10-2 m height is formed at a distance of 30 × 10-2 m from the lens on the same side of the lens.

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.

Ramu passes white light through a quartz prism. For which colour refractive index is greater?

Answer:

Refractive index is maximum for violet light when white light passes through a quartz prism.

Question 2.

Sita has kept a stud consists of diamond. What will she observe? Give reason.

Answer:

The diamond stud appears bright because of total internal reflection.

Question 3.

Guna passes a ray light through a glass slab. Which optical phenomenon will take place? What can he observe with reference to wavelength?

Answer:

When a ray of light enters a glass slab he can observe refraction of light. He observed that wavelength of light decreases.

Question 4.

A prism is placed in the minimum deviation position. Chari has passed a ray of light at an angle of 45°, then what is the value of angle of emergence? Why?

Answer:

The angle of emergence = 45°.

Since, in the minimum deviation positron, angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.

Question 5.

Mani is using a lens of power 2 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens?

Answer:

Focal length =

1power

F=

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