civics | Aster Classes

Balbharati solutions, for, Social Science, History, and, Civics, 10th, Standard, SSC, Maharashtra, State, Board, chapter 4, Social, and, Political Movements, Latest edition,

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 96

Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentence. 

____________ is the main demand of farmers movement. 

Right to cultivate on the forest land 

To get the right price for agricultural product 

Protection of consumers 

Building of dams

SOLUTION

To get the right price for agricultural product


To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ____________ was initiated. 

Water revolution 

Green revolution 

Industrial revolution 

White revolution

SOLUTION

Green revolution


Exercise | Q 1 | Page 96

Write note on : 

Tribal movement

SOLUTION

The origin of Tribal movement dates back to the pre-independence days. The British government had deprived tribal people of their rights to livelihood on forest resources and as a result of that, a tribal uprising took place in various parts of the country. It included tribes like Kolam (Chota Nagpur), Gond (Orissa), Koli Bhilla Ramoshi (Maharashtra), Santhal and Munda (Bihar).

The main demand of the tribal movement is for the government to accept their rights over forests, they should be allowed to collect forest produce and cultivate forest land.


Workers movement

SOLUTION

Workers movement in India was organized under Trade unions that saw its birth in the background of industrialization in British India.

Industrial workers frequently went on strike for their demands of better wages and improved working hours.

One such incident was reported as the railway workers’ strike in 1899.

The first organization for resolving workers’ issues was established in 1920, known as the All India Trade Union Congress.

In the post-independence era, trade unions got more effective in 1960s and 1970s, organizing several agitations but saw its disintegration in 1980s and its steady decline in the face of globalization in 1990s. Some of the concerns of the workers’ movements are:

• Unstable employment conditions

• Contract labour and financial insecurities of workers

• Absence of legal protection for workers

• Long working hours

• Insecurities at workplace

• Health hazards at work place, etc.


Answer the following question in brief. 

Explain the activities/role/functions  of environmental movement.

SOLUTION

The environmental movement is an important step towards environmental protection which is recognized as a global concern. Its working is organized on several levels (local, national, international) to prevent environmental degradation. It aims to create awareness and drive policy making on issues like sustainable energy, protection of forest and biodiversity, severe effects of pollution and degradation of air, water, soil etc.


Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.

SOLUTION

The history of farmers’ movement in India dates to the time of our independence struggle. It was inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi against the anti-agriculturist policies of the British. It has continued to be active and became more effective after the Green Revolution which increased the economic gap between rich farmers and poor farmers. Some of the demands of the farmers’ movements are:

• Appropriate prices for agricultural goods

• Industry status for Agriculture

• Implementations of the recommendations of the Swaminathan Commission report

• Debt relief and debt cancellation

• National policy for Agriculture


For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?

SOLUTION

The women’s movements in the pre-independence period were fighting for eliminating injustice and exploitation against women, helping them lead a respectful and socially active life. Some of the reforms it demanded were:

• Widow re-marriage

• Women education

• Right to vote

After Independence, women were granted equal political rights by the constitution, however, the social struggle for equality continued.


Explain the following statement by giving reason. 

Movements are important in a democracy.

SOLUTION

Movements are important in a democracy because:

1. Different social problems are discussed through these movements.

2. It is a way of attracting the attention of Government towards a cause.

3. The Government & common people get more necessary information about the issues through leaders and activists.

4. It helps the government take an informed decision on the subject.

5. Right to protest is an important democratic right, hence social movements strengthen democratic processes.


Movements do not need a strong leadership.

SOLUTION

Movements need a strong leadership to keep it active and effective. A Movement is a collective struggle, people need a strong leader for right guidance to reach their objective.

For instance, India’s freedom struggle was marked with emergence of a strong political leadership in the twentieth century (1900s), prior to that the independence efforts were scattered in regions and divided in their political stances. It found a direction in non-violence and political non-cooperation under the leadership of Gandhi. While multiple groups continued to fight for India’s freedom in their respective ways, the common masses found their aspirations aligned with the Gandhian movement for his charismatic leadership.


Consumer movement came into existence.

SOLUTION

The consumer movement came into existence in 1986 with the Consumer Protection Act to address cases of frauds in the economic exchanges. It takes each citizen to be a consumer and has a broader objective is to protect the consumer against adulteration and frauds, understanding the changing nature of consumer grievances.

The Consumer Protection Act proved its importance with the economic liberalization of India in 1990s. The consumer forums proved to be a good system of check and balance into quality control and after sales services in the market place.


Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.

SOLUTION

In my city, Jodhpur, currently the initiative has been taken by the people to clean in area (Madhuban) by making arrangements to dump the waste rather than throwing it in the corners of the road.

REPORT ON CREATING ARRANGEMENTS FOR DUMPING WASTE

Recently when I visited my town, I found out that to resolve the general problem of dumping waste, the people are taking initiative in various ways. As the situation in this area was worsening, some people took the initiative to solve this problem.

In Madhuban, People were dumping waste in their nearby corners as the dustbins were already filled. Municipal people didn’t bother to clean up the area at least once on an alternate day depending upon the availability of dustbins provided in the location. Hardly, there was proper facility provided to dump the waste. People had to go to the other areas to dump waste as there were not enough dustbins provided.

There were some people who took initiative firstly by complaining to the Municipal Corporation to provide a required number of dustbins in Madhuban (at least in every colony). Some people started to travel with their own carrier tempo with a song playing with lyrics “Sunlo bhaiya sunlo bhabhi sunlo bhaiyaji, kachre waale dabbe me tum Kachra daalo ji”. They go to every colony with this temp and charge 50 Rs a month for this. They also take waste bags kept outside the houses and charge extra 10 Rs for this otherwise the individual has to dump waste on his own when the tempo comes outside the home.


Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains.

SOLUTION

CASE: Miss Devika Pillai purchased Grains from Mr. Pankaj & Co. operating in the same town, in January 2019. The grains purchased contained chemicals and colours to make it look more shiny and fresh. As a result, Miss Devika Pillai approaches the District forum.

COMPLAINT PETITION

For being cheated in the purchase of grains

BEFORE THE DISTRICT FORUM CONSUMER DISPUTES REDRESSAL FORUM, <JODHPUR>

Consumer dispute case no. 1234/2019

A petition under Section-11 Consumer Protection Act

And in the matter of :

Miss Devika Pillai

3 GHA 22 Madhuban, Basni, 1st phase, Jodhpur (Raj.)

Vs

Owner of the Shop

Mr. Pankaj & Co.

3B12, Chopasini Housing Board, Jodhpur.

To,

Hon’ble President and

Members of the District Forum

Jodhpur

May it please your honours:

This complaint petition is being filed on behalf of Miss Devika Pillai 3 GHA 22 Madhuban, Basni, 1st phase, Jodhpur (Raj.) referred hereafter as Complainant, and is as follows :

1.0 That this complaint Petition is being filed under Sec.

2 (1)(b)(i) of the Consumer Protection Act.

2.0 That the opposite party is engaged in the business of selling vegetables and grains in the known markets, apart from other activities.

(Narration of the Incident)

3.1 That on 5th January. 2019 (date of purchasing grains), the complainant deposited a sum of Rs 1 lakh to purchase 40 kg of Grains and the receipt (receipt no. -228) has been provided for this. A Photocopy of the said receipt is furnished at Annexure-I.

3.2 After knowing about being cheated, when the complainant approached the shopkeeper, he initially refused to talk on this matter and later denied of such act done by him. Hence, the complainant wrote to the shopkeeper, requesting to take an immediate intervention. Copy of the letter has been furnished at Annexure – II.

3.3 As a result, till date O.P No. 1 did not bother to honour the directives of a complainant, and the complainant is still didn’t receive his money back.

3.4 That the O.P had tried to sell grains which are unhealthy to consume by the complainant.

PRAYER

In the view of the submissions contained in the preceding paragraphs, the complainant most respectfully prays to the Hon’ble Forum to direct the Opposite Parties to:

(a) refund the cost of the purchased grain, Rs. <1 lakh> along with 10% interest;

(b) to pay a sum of Rs. 10,000/- towards the physical strain and mental agony suffered by the complainant and his family members (compensation); and

(c) to pay a sum of Rs. 1,000/- towards cost of this petition (Cost);

For which act of kindness, the complainant shall, as is duty bound, ever pray

Devika Pillai


Balbharati, solutions, for, Social, Science, History, and, Civics, 10th, Standard, SSC, Maharashtra, State, Board, chapter 2, The Electoral Process, [Latest edition],

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 80

Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentence. 

The Election Commissioner is appointed by the _______

President 

Prime Minister 

 Speaker of Loksabha 

 Vice President

SOLUTION

President

_________ was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India. 

Dr. Rajendra Prasad 

T.N. Sheshan 

Sukumar Sen 

Neela Satyanarayan

SOLUTION

Sukumar Sen

Constituencies are created by _________ committee of the Election Commission. 

Selection 

Delimitation 

Voting 

Timetable

SOLUTION

Delimitation


State whether the following statement are true or false. Give reason for your answer

The Elections Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.

SOLUTION

True.

Reason: The Code of conduct is measure adopted by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections in India. It explains the rules that are to be followed by the Government, political parties and voters, before elections and during elections. Violation of the Code of Conduct can lead to termination of candidature or even imprisonment.

Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time.

SOLUTION

True.

Under special circumstances the

Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time. It is done in case of any dispute arising regarding the election for e.g. complaints criminal malpractices like booth capturing and in special circumstances of high NOTA votes.

The state government decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State.

SOLUTION

False.

The Election Commission decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State. It is the sole authority on conducting elections in Indian.


Write short note.

Journey from the ballot box to EVM machine

SOLUTION

Since the first General Election in 1951-52, the election process has undergone various changes to improve voter experience. One such change includes introduction of Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) in 1990s. It was a step towards preservation of environment since the machine eliminated the use of paper, it was now easier to vote for disabled people and promised an early declaration of results. The most notable feature of the EVM, however, was the NOTA (None of the above) option which enabled the voters to not vote for any candidate if they were not satisfied with him/her.

Reorganising the constituencies

SOLUTION

Reorganisation of the constituencies is the responsibility of the Delimitation committee of the Election Commission. The constituencies are reorganized from time to time on the basis of population density of an area, as tabulated in the decennial census reports. Uttar Pradesh is the most densely populated state of India, and hence has the largest no. of seats to Loksabha in the general election, each seat representing a constituency. At present there are 543 constituencies which are due for a reorganisation in 2021 on the basis of the next Census report.

Complete the following picture.

SOLUTION

Role of Election Commission: Conduct free and fair elections in the country.

Role of the voters: Cast their votes and participate in the election process

Role of political parties & their candidates: Follow the Code of Conduct.

Answer in brief. 

Explain the functions of the Election Commission

SOLUTION

The functions of the Election Commission are as follows:

1. Prepare voters list

It is responsible to preparing a list of eligible voters and updating existing voter’s list. It has the sole authority to issue voter identity cards.

2. Formulate the timetable and programme of elections.

It is responsible for conducting free and fair elections and decides when to conduct elections and how to conduct elections in every state.

3. Scrutinize candidate applications.

Every candidate, affiliated to a party or standing independent, has to fill an application with the election commission giving information about oneself. The commission then scrutinizes all the applications and allows the eligible candidates to contest.

4. Recognize political parties.

All political parties are required to be recognized by the Election commission. The commission has the right to derecognize a party as well. It is also responsible for allotting election symbols to the political parties.

5. Resolve disputes relating to elections.

The commission is responsible for resolution of any dispute arising regarding elections. It can accordingly declare any candidate disqualified and call for re-election in a constituency.

Write some additional information about post of the Election Commissioner.

SOLUTION

The Election Commissioner is an important office in the Government of India.

1. He is appointed by the President and is responsible for the smooth conduct of the election process. The Election Commissioner are mostly retired IAS officers appointed on an extended term.

2. At first there was just one Election Commissioner, later in 1989 the Commission was enlarged with a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election commissioners.

3. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India and Om Prakash Rawat is the current Chief Election Commissioner.

4. The term of the Election Commissioner is for 6 years, draws salary at par with those of the Judges the Supreme Court of India.

5. The Commissioner can only be removed from office with two-thirds majority in Loksabha and Rajsabha on the grounds of misconduct or incapacity.

Explain the meaning of Code of Conduct

SOLUTION

Some important points on the Code of Conduct are:

1. Code of Conduct is a measure adopted by the Election Commission of India to ensure free and fair elections. It is use to control incidences of malpractices during the elections.

2. It is a set of guidelines for the Government, political parties and candidates to be followed before and during the elections.

3. It concerns rules and regulations with respect to speeches, election manifestos, processions and general conduct.

4. Its objective is to check misuse of power during the elections and curb malpractices e.g. hate speeches, liquor distribution, use of muscle force etc. Violation of the code of conduct can lead to cancellation of candidature.

5. Due to the strict observance of the code in the last few elections, the people have become more confident and aware of their rights and duties as voters during the election process.

Organise a mock poll in the school to understand the process of voting .

SOLUTION

Our school witness election every academic year. This year, as the election process was a part of the study, we decided to strictly observe the election processes. The details of the observation are given below:

1. Formation of school squads (which can be related to Formation of Constituencies):

• There were 4 squads namely blue, red, green and pink. It resembled the constituencies in national and state-level elections.

2. Filling of Nominations:

• The nomination of candidates is an important part of the election process.

• The regulations require that the candidate or the person who suggests his name files the nomination papers with the principal (Returning Officer in general election)

• Criteria were set for the qualification of those who become candidates.

3. Scrutiny of Nominations:

• The principal (Returning Officer) scrutinizes the nomination papers very carefully.

• If the eligibility of the student candidate is dissatisfied, he/she is officially stopped from contesting in the election.

• The candidates could withdraw their nomination papers till the prescribed period.

• The security deposit from candidates done in the general elections was not possible in the case of a school election. This step was omitted here.

4. Election Campaign:

Techniques of the election campaign and the tools employed by the squads and the independent candidates are many:

• Election Manifesto

• Electioneering (Activities and Techniques to Persuade Voters)

• Canvassing

• Meet the candidate event

• Class-to-class campaigning

In general elections, the candidates are assigned the tasks like:

• to address public meetings

• street corner meetings

• door-to-door canvassing

• new slogans are coined to attract the masses

• advertisements are released to the press (the popular daily and weekly newspapers)

• Radio and the Television are used to broadcast the speeches and panel-discussions of leaders of various parties

• electronic media plays the most effective role in creating people’s awareness of programs of the political parties

• Attend many interviews to newspapers and television agencies.

• Wide coverage is being given to all these events at regular intervals

5. Polling Personnel and the Polling:

• The election campaign was stopped 48 hours before the time when the poll concludes on the polling day.

• The vice-principal (Presiding Officer) manages the whole of the polling process and guarantee that all persons working under him adhere to the electoral norms and practices.

• The voter records his vote by placing the seal-mark against the name of the candidate he wants to vote. (in general election it is by pressing the button of the voting machine).

6. Counting of Votes and Declaration of Results:

• After the polling has ended the ballot boxes or the voting machines are sealed and carried under custody to the counting stations (concerned classrooms).

• Then the process of counting the votes began.

• The representatives of all the squads were present at the counting point.

• The candidate who obtains the highest number of votes is declared elected.

7. Submission of Account Relating to Election Expenses:

• The school budget law fixes the maximum limit of the expenses to be incurred by various proceedings on their election.

• In general election in India, the limit of election expenses for an Assembly election in most States was raised from Rs. 1.50 lakh to Rs. 6 lakh.

• It was enhanced from Rs. 4.50 lakh to Rs. 15 lakh for a Parliamentary contest.

• The candidates are required to file an account of the election expenses.

• It is a dishonest practice for a candidate to expend more money than the prescribed amount on his election.

• These steps were not present or required in the school election.

8. Election Disputes:

• The concerned teachers and the administrative head formed the election dispute cell in school.

• The Indian Constitution originally provided for the appointment of Election Tribunals for deciding disputes happening in connection with elections.

• The Nineteenth Amendment Act (1966) eliminated this provision and insisted that the election disputes would be decided by the High Courts.

Thus the scrutiny and recording of school election gave us a better understanding of the National election in India.


Balbharati, solutions, for, Social, Science, History, and, Civics, 10th, Standard, SSC, Maharashtra, State, Board, chapter 1, Working of the Constitution, [Latest edition],

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 74

Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentence. 

In Maharashtra __________ seats are reserved for women in local  self-governing institutions. 

25%

30%

40%

50%

Solution

50%

Which of the following laws created a favorable environment for women to secure freedom and self-development? 

Options

Right to Information Act 

Dowry Prohibition Act 

Food Security Act 

 None of the above

Solution

The Dowry Prohibition Act

The essence of democracy is ________

universal adult franchise. 

decentralisation of power. 

policy of reservation of seats. 

judicial decisions.

Solution

decentralisation of power.

Exercise | Q 1 | Page 74

State whether following statement is true or false. Give reason for your answer. 

Indian democracy is considered the largest democracy in the world.

Solution

True

Reason : Indian democracy is considered the largest democracy in the world because of political maturity. It’s the world’s second largest country in terms of population, people have direct representation in the legislative processes through regular elections and the right to adult suffrage.

Secrecy in the working of Government has increased due to the Right to Information.

Solution

False

Reason: Secrecy in the working of Government has decreased due to the Right to Information (Act 2005). Since 2000, the democratic reforms has been approached as ‘rights’ of citizen which has made governance more transparent and the government more accountable.

The nature of Constitution is seen as a living document.

Solution

True.

Reason: The Constitution is seen as a living document owing to its dynamic nature. It has to change according to changing conditions of the society and the Parliament has been entrusted with that responsibility.

Exercise | Q 1 | Page 74

Write short note.

Provisions regarding minorities.

Solution

The constitution has made several provisions for the protection of minorities in the country. It prohibits discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, race, language and region. Comprehensive provisions in the Fundamental Rights protect their right to equality, right against exploitation, and their cultural and educational rights.

Policy of reservation of seats.

Solution

Policy of reservation of seats is meant for the weaker section of the society who have been deprived of equal opportunity to education and employment for years. The Constitution accordingly mandates reservation of seats for scheduled caste, scheduled tribes and other backward classes in educational institutions and government services.

Women representation in the Loksabha.

Solution

Since independence, steps have been to address the issue of inadequate representation of women in political institutions. Under the 73rd and 74th amendment to the Constitution, 33% of seats in the local self- governing institutions are reserved for women. The representation of women in Lok Sabha has also seen a significant improvement with appointment of 12.15% women MPs in 2014 General elections.

Exercise | Q 1 | Page 74

Explain the following concept.

Right based approach

Solution

Since 2000, the approach towards democratic reform has evolved to be right based. Democratic reforms are necessitated as the ‘rights’ of the citizen, instead of approached as a part of the Directive principle of State policy. Citizens can take the government to the court in case their ‘rights’ are not met and thus, this change in approach has strengthened our democracy and made the govt. more accountable to the public. People now have the Right to Information, Right to Food, Right to Education and thus are more participative in the democratic processes.

Right to information

Solution

Right to information was enacted in 2005 to empower the citizen with vital information about the working and decision making process of the state. It makes the govt. more accountable and transparent, with increasing communication between the state and the citizen, hence building trust. It has reduced the element of secrecy in the working of government. The movement for RTI was first started in the state of Maharashtra in 2000 under the leadership of Anna Hazare. After the success of the state level efforts, the movement acquired national importance later in 2005.

Exercise | Q 1 | Page 74

Answer the following question.

What are the effects of reducing the voting age from 21 years to 18 years ?

Solution

The effects of reducing the voting age from 21 years to 18 years are:

1. Increased participation in the political processes. India has the largest number of voters compared to any other democratic country.

2. It encourages youth participation in public life, giving the younger generation an opportunity to be the change makers.

3. The change is not just quantitative but qualitative as well since new parties are emerging with the active support of the young voters.

4. It reflects the political maturity of India that empowers and actively working towards helping its citizens exercise their Right to vote.

5. Such provisions have made India the largest democracy in the world.

What is meant by establishment of social justice?

Solution

Social justice and equality are important objectives of our Constitution. It means establishing and ensuring a fair environment for the growth of every individual without any form of discrimination. Various provisions have been made to establish social justice in our society, some of these are:

Policy of Reservation: Seats are reserved for the weaker section of the society to enable them equal and fair opportunities for education and government services.

Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act: It prevents any act of injustice and atrocities committed against the people belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Provisions for Minority: There is a comprehensive provision in the Constitution that protects the fundamental rights of the minority to equality, freedom, education, right against exploitation, and the right to preserve their culture.

Laws for Women: Taking into account the problems of women, various policies have been formulated to remove illiteracy among women and avail them of equal opportunity for their development. The right to have an equal share in the property of their father and husband, the Dowry Prohibition Act, the Domestic Violence Prohibition Act, etc. have been conceptualized to create a favourable environment for women.

Which decision of the Court has resulted in protection of honour and dignity of women ?

Solution

The decision of the court in the cases of domestic violence, sexual harassment in work place etc. has resulted in protection of honour and dignity of women.

The most recent case in news had been the matter of Triple Talaq, where the practice was declared as unconstitutional as per the decision of the Supreme Court. It was an unfair practice subjected against Muslim women where divorce was pronounced with mere utterance of the word ‘Talaq’ trice on most trivial of issues with no formal legal proceedings, thus undermining various fundamental rights of women. It violated their dignity and fundamental right against discrimination on the basis of religion and gender.

Supreme Court as the apex judicial body is responsible for ensuring the preservation of the fundamental rights. Important judgments by the judiciary on various subjects have made the fundamental rights in the constitution more meaningful.

Project | Q 1 | Page 74

Which information can be secured with the help of right to information? Find out with the help of your teachers.

Solution

Under the provisions of the Act, Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament of India any citizen of India may ask for information from a “public authority” (a body of Government or “instrumentality of State”) which is necessary to reply immediately or within thirty days.

The Right to information in India is governed by two major bodies:

• Central Information Commission (CIC)

• State Information Commissions

The information which can be collected are:

1) Information from a public authority

2) Inspection of work, records etc of public authority

3) Details related to members of parliament and members of legislative assembly.

The important feature of RTI is that it is applicable to Indian citizens, but not associations or companies.

Make a list of concessions given by the Government for the students of minority community ?

Solution

AREA    SCHEMES

Educational   

1.Scholarship Schemes

2.Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF)

3.Padho Pardesh – Scheme of Internet Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for the Students Belonging to the Minority Communities

4.Naya Savera – Free Coaching and Allied Scheme

5.Nai Udaan – Support for Students for preparation of main Examination who clear Prelims conducted by UPSC/SSC , state public service commission (PSC) etc . 

Economic   

1.Seekho Aur Kamao (Learn & Earn)

2.USTTAD (Upgrading the skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development)

3.Nai Manzil

4.Concessional credit through National Minorities Dvelopment and Finance Corporation (NMDFC)

Infrastructural assistance    1.Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)

Visit the official website of National election commission and collect more information about it.

Solution

(INFORMATION FROM THE INTERNET)

The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.

A Constitutional Body

Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body. The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. The Commission celebrated its Golden Jubilee in 2001.

Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote.

Appointment & Tenure of Commissioners

The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

Transaction of Business

The Commission transacts its business by holding regular meetings and also by circulation of papers. All Election Commissioners have equal say in the decision making of the Commission. The Commission, from time to time, delegates some of its executive functions to its officers in its Secretariat.

The Setup

The Commission has a separate Secretariat at New Delhi, consisting of about 300 officials, in a hierarchical set up.

Budget & Expenditure

The Secretariat of the Commission has an independent budget, which is finalized directly in consultation between the Commission and the Finance Ministry of the Union Government. The latter generally accepts the recommendations of the Commission for its budgets. The major expenditure on the actual conduct of elections is, however, reflected in the budgets of the concerned constituent units of the Union – States and Union Territories.

Political Parties & the Commission

Political parties are registered with the Election Commission under the law. The Commission ensures inner-party democracy in their functioning by insisting upon them to hold their organizational elections at periodic intervals.

Advisory Jurisdiction & Quasi-Judicial Functions

Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures

Judicial Review

The decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of India by appropriate petitions. By long-standing convention and several judicial pronouncements, once the actual process of elections has started, the judiciary does not intervene in the actual conduct of the polls.

Media Policy

The Commission has a comprehensive policy for the media. It holds regular briefings for the mass media-print and electronic, on a regular basis, at close intervals during the election period and on specific occasions as necessary on other occasions.

Voter Education

Voters’ Participation in the democratic and electoral processes is integral to the successful running of any democracy and the very basis of wholesome democratic elections. Recognizing this, Election Commission of India, in 2009, formally adopted Voter Education and Electoral participation as an integral part of its election management.

International Co-operation

India is a founding member of the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (IDEA), Stockholm, Swed

Take an interview of women representations from local self-governing institutions from your area.

Solution

The MLA of our district is a woman. She has been in the socio-cultural activities in our region for the last fifteen years. She is vibrant and active. An interview with her was very insightful and motivating.

Q: Do you see women reservation as part of a greater change in the social system?

Ans. I judge the excellence and the ambiance of politics will improve if more women come in. After bearing in mind the structure work for 45 years, it is understandable that we are the weaker sex, whether we like it or not. We are barred from jobs, the economic mainstream, decision-making processes, heritage rights… Whether one is fighting for the Scheduled Castes, the Backward Classes, or the minorities…. the main group that is affected are women. And things have not changed since then. Unless we are assured an access point by law we will never be allowed to participate. I really consider that. Some women say that we should come into decision-making positions on our own stream, but how many have come so far? To all those who say that they will do it on their own, I would like to ask why is the number of seats occupied by women in the legislatures deteriorating?

Q: You have completed some individual efforts at getting many numbers of women party tickets. What have you found to be the barriers?

Ans. We have tried but we have been unproductive because we are neither in the collection panels nor are we represented in decision-making bodies. We give lists, we struggle, we counsel, but they don’t listen to us. The election commission will reserve 33 percent of the seats by ballot for women. These are reserved for women for two terms and are then rotated. In the interim, women can establish themselves and if they are popular they will be able to contest on their own worth as general candidates by the next elections. So each ward has a chance to throw up women. We can launch a deadline of 25 years, or five general elections, by which time the reservations for women could be remoted. If women do not have an entry tip, how will they ever get in?

Q: What is your individual stand on the subject of 33 percent reservation for women?

Ans. As a result of reservation, one million women have been elected to local bodies. In many states they have even surpassed the quota for example, in Karnataka, women constitute 47 percent of the elected panchayat members. Bengal has also been a triumph story, as have Maharashtra, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. We need reforms not just for women the whole system of selection of candidates needs to be renovated.

Q: How did this issue get included in your party’s manifesto?

Ans. We had argued for its early introduction so that negotiations and debate could be allowed. Finally, when it was introduced, those who had never spoken about reservation for Backward Classes suddenly become the champions of Backward Class reservations. Between 1991, when the Panchayath bill was introduced, until 1996 when this bill is on the edge of being introduced, these people did not coherent any of their concerns for the Backward Class men! The issue gains importance only now because women are about to gain seats.

Q: Do you think this is just party games or something else?

Ans. No, no, even women in our party stood up to oppose the bill. There is a lobby of self-interest amongst women as well. The matter is different among the patriarchal viewpoint. They ask; Once decisions are taken, why have a women’s meeting?

Q: What is the status now?

Ans. A Select Committee has been set up. I am not recommending anything. Based on the various Commission reports we made reservations on the services. Nobody had spoken about proviso for Backward Classes or others in Parliament or legislatures. Women cut across all sections and by giving reservations to them you will be serving women from all sections to come forward. There are presently no reserved constituencies for the Backward Classes and minorities, so why should this issue get tied up with a reservation for women?

The interview session was so encouraging, and the MLA winded up the conversation by laying high remarks about the future of the whole society.


Tamilnadu, board, samacheer kalvi, ssc, civics, Chapter 4 – India’s Foreign Policy,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?

(a) Defense Minister

(b) Prime Minister

(c) External Affairs Minister

(d) Home Minister

Answer:

(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.

The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..

(a) India and Nepal

(b) India and Pakistan

(c) India and China

(d) India and Sri Lanka

Answer:

(c) India and China

Question 3.

Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?

(a) Article 50

(b) Article 51

(c) Article 52

(d) Article 53

Answer:

(b) Article 51

Question 4.

Apartheid is ………………

(a) An international association

(b) Energy diplomacy

(c) A policy of racial discrimination

(d) None of these

Answer:

(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.

The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:

(a) Trade and Commerce

(b) Restoration of normal relations

(c) Cultural exchange programmes

(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Answer:

(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.

Which is not related to our foreign policy?

(a) World co-operation

(b) World peace

(c) Racial equality

(d) Colonialism

Answer:

(d) Colonialism

Question 7.

Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?

(a) Yugoslavia

(b) Indonesia

(c) Egypt

(d) Pakistan

Answer:

(d) Pakistan

Question 8.

Find the odd one ………….

(a) Social welfare

(b) Health care

(c) Diplomacy

(d) Domestic affairs

Answer:

(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.

Non-Alliance means:

(a) being neutral

(b) freedom to decide on issues independently

(c) demilitarisation

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(d) none of the above

Question 10.

Non-military issues are

(a) Energy security

(b) Water security

(c) Pandemics

(d) All the above

Answer:

(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..

At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.

…………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.

…………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.

Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

Pokhran

Inward Investment Business Technology

Diplomacy

Non – Alignment

disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.

Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

(i) Panchsheel

(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran

(iii) Twenty-year Treaty

(iv) First Nuclear test

(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Answer:

(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.

Which of the following is not about NAM?

(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.

(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.

(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.

(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (iv)

(c) (ii) only

(d) (iv) only

Answer:

(c) (ii) only

Question 3.

Write true or false against each of the statement.

(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.

(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.

(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.

Answer:

(a) – True

(b) – False

(c) – True

Question 4.

Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.

Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.

(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

(d) Both A and R are wrong.

Answer:

(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.

Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.

(a) A is correct and R explains A

(b) A is correct and R does not explain A

(c) A is wrong and R is correct

(d) Both are wrong.

Answer:

(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.

Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:

(a) acute poverty

(b) illiteracy

(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions

(d) all the above

Answer:

(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

1

Answer:

A. (iii)

B. (v)

C. (ii)

D. (i)

E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.

What is foreign policy?

Answer:

Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.

Explain India’s nuclear policy.

Answer:

India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:

(a) No first use

(b) Credible minimum deterrence.

India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.

Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.

Answer:

Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.

Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.

Answer:

Domestic Policy:

Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.

It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.

Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.

List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?

Answer:

Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty

Mutual non-interference

Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit

Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.

What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?

Answer:

Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.

So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.

In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?

Answer:

India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.

List out the member countries of SAARC.

Answer:

The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.

Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.

Answer:

Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.

Mention the main tools of foreign policy.

Answer:

The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.

Answer:

The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.

Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.

It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.

It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.

The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.

It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.

Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?

Answer:

Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

Geographical position and size of the territory

Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis

Natural resources

The compulsion of economic development

Political stability and structure of government

The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons

Military strength

International milieu

Question 3.

Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.

Answer:

Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.

India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.

Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.

This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

South East Asia begins with North East India.

Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).

The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.

This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.

Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.

India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.

India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.

Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.

Answer:

India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

Preservation of national interest

Achievement of world peace

Disarmament

Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries

Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.

Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.

Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).

(a) Panchsheel

(b) Imperialism

(c) Foreign Policy

(d) Non-co-operation

Answer:

(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………

(a) Swadesh

(b) New Deal

(c) Panchsheel

Answer:

(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.

An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:

(a) improved relation with other Nation.

(b) To accelerate growth

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above

Answer:

(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.

India is called by the name of ………..

(a) Superpower

(b) Terrorist

(c) A great peacemaker

Answer:

(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.

Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?

(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

(b) An international association

(c) Ministry of external affairs of India

(d) All the above

Answer:

(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.

China became a Republic in ………..

(a) 1945

(b) 1947

(c) 1949

Answer:

(c) 1949

Question 7.

………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.

(a) Non – Aligned Movement

(b) Panchsheel

(c) Trade and commerce

(d) Racial discrimination

Answer:

(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.

Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….

(a) Nehru

(b) Indira Gandhi

(c) Gandhi

Answer:

(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.

What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?

(a) World co – operation

(b) World peace

(c) Racial equality

(d) All the above

Answer:

(d) All the above

Question 10.

The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….

(a) V. Krishna Menon

(b) Abul Ashar

(c) Jinnah

Answer:

(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.

Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Myanmar

(d) Egypt

Answer:

(b) India

Question 12.

The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:

(a) Domestic transformation

(b) Inward investment

(c) Business and technology

(d) All the above

Answer:

(d) All the above

Question 13.

India’s global security concerns:

(a) Military modernisation

(b) Nuclear policies

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None

Answer:

(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.

Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.

(a) Disarmament

(b) Colonisation

(c) Imperialism

(d) Racism

Answer:

(a) Disarmament

Question 15.

How many member countries in SAARC organisation?

(a) 5

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

Answer:

(b) 8

Question 16.

Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?

(a) Myanmar

(b) Pakistan

(c) Egypt

(d) Indonesia

Answer:

(b) Pakistan

Question 17.

………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)

(a) SAARC

(b) Panchsheel

(c) Non – Alignment

(d) none

Answer:

(a) SAARC

Question 18.

………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

(a) Diplomacy

(b) Disarmament

(c) Racism

(d) None

Answer:

(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.

Who supported UN disarmament programme?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Srilanka

(c) China

(d) India

Answer:

(d) India

Question 20.

………………… is the world’s second most populous country.

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Pakistan

(d) Srilanka

Answer:

(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….

The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….

…………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.

The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.

The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.

India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………

The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.

The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.

India supported UN ……………… programme.

……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………

SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………

SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………

The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.

……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.

India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………

……………… forced India to adjust new realities.

Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.

India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.

Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.

Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1986

Indonesia

Non – Alignment

Jawaharlal Nehru

120, 10

Military modernisation

Non – Aligned Movement

foreign policy

disarmament

SAARC, South Asia

New Delhi

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

Socio-cultural

Foreign Policy

UN Security Council

New Challenges

Nuclear deal

neighbours

Independence

Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.

Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?

(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.

(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.

(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.

(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (iv)

(c) (iii) only

(d) (iv) only

Answer:

(c) (iii) only

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.

Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.

(c) A is correct and R is wrong.

(d) Both A and R are wrong.

Answer:

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.

Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.

(c) A is correct and R is wrong.

(d) Both A and R are right.

Answer:

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.

Which of the following is about NAM?

(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.

(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.

(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

(c) (ii) only

(d) (ii),(iv)

Answer:

(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.

Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.

Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.

(a) A is correct and R explains A.

(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.

(c) A is correct and R is wrong.

(d) Both A and R are right.

Answer:

(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.

2

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (ii)

D. (i)

E. (iii)

Question 2.

Match the Column I with Column ll.

3

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (v)

C. (ii)

D. (iii)

E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.

What is Diplomacy?

Answer:

Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.

What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?

Answer:

G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.

Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.

Answer:

In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.

India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.

It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.

List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?

Answer:

Preservation of National interest.

Achievement of world peace.

Disarmament

Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.

Solving conflicts by peaceful means.

Equality in conducting international relations.

Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.

Write short notes on Article-51.

Answer:

Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

Promote international peace and security

Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

Foster respect for international law and international organisation.

Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.

What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?

Answer:

one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.

This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.

What are the elements in our eastern policy?

Answer:

The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.

Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?

Answer:

“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.

– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.

Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.

Answer:

Geographical position and size of territory.

Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.

Natural resources

Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.

What do you mean by NAM?

Answer:

NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.

It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.

Answer:

The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).

The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.

Defence procurement relationship with Israel.

Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.

Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and

India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.

Write a short note on SAARC.

Answer:

SAARC:

SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.

(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.

(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.

(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.

How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?

Answer:

India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.

By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.

Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.

Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.

Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.

Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.

Answer:

Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

Promote International Peace and Security.

Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

Foster respect for International law and international organisation.

Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.

Write a short note on SAARC.

Answer:

SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.

The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.

SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.

This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,

SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.

The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.



Tamilnadu, board, samacheer kalvi, ssc, civics, Chapter 3, State Government,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

The Governor of the State is appointed by the:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Chief Minister

(c) President

(d) Chief Justice

Answer:

(c) President

Question 2.

The Speaker of a State is a ……………

(a) Head of State

(b) Head of government

(c) President’s agent

(d) None of these

Answer:

(d) None of these

Question 3.

Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?

(a) Legislative

(b) Executive

(c) Judicial

(d) Diplomatic

Answer:

(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.

Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?

(a) The President

(b) The Governor

(c) The Chief Minister

(d) The Speaker of State legislature

Answer:

(b) The Governor

Question 5.

The Governor does not appoint:

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

(c) Advocate General of the State

(d) Judges of the High Court

Answer:

(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.

The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….

(a) The State Legislature

(b) The Governor

(c) The President

(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly

Answer:

(b) The Governor

Question 7.

The State Council of Ministers is headed by:

(a) The Chief Minister

(b) The Governor

(c) The Speaker

(d) The Prime Minister

Answer:

(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.

The Legislative Council ………….

(a) has a term of five years

(b) has a term of six years

(c) is a permanent house

(d) has a term of four years

Answer:

(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.

The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:

(a) 25 years

(b) 21 years

(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

Answer:

(c) 30 years

Question 10.

The members of the Legislative Council are ……………

(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly

(b) Mostly nominated

(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

(d) Directly elected by the people

Answer:

(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.

Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Telangana

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer:

(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.

The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….

(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

(b) Delhi and Calcutta

(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras

(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi

Answer:

(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.

Which of the following States have a common High Court?

(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

(b) Kerala and Telangana

(c) Punjab and Haryana

(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat

Answer:

(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..

Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..

……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.

……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.

The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.

The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

The President

people

Mrs.Fathima Beevi

The Governor

1956

President

III. Match the following

1

Answer:

A. (ii)

B. (i)

C. (iv)

D. (v)

E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.

(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.

(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.

(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.

(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (i) and iv are correct

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.

Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.

Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State

Legislature only with the President’s approval.

(a) (A) is false but (R) is true

(b) (A) is true but (R) is false

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).

Answer:

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.

How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?

Answer:

(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.

What is the importance of the Governor of a state?

Answer:

The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.

The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.

The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.

He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.

Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.

What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?

Answer:

Qualifications of the Governor is given below

He should be a citizen of India.

He must have completed 35 years of age.

He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.

He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.

What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?

Answer:

Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.

The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.

What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?

Answer:

As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?

Answer:

The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.

The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

Relating to the council of Ministers

Relating to the Governor

Relating to the State Legislature

Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.

He allocates the port folios to the Ministers

He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry

He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,

In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,

If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.

He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.

He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.

He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.

He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.

Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.

To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.

As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.

For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.

Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.

Answer:

The powers and functions of the Governor are:

(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.

Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.

Answer:

Legislative powers:

As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.

The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.

The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.

The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly

No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.

The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

The Legislature controls over the Executive.

The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.

They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.

Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.

Answer:

The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.

It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.

It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.

It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,

It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.

The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.

It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.

Describe the powers and functions of the High Court

Answer:

High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)

(b) High Court has an administrative powers.

(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.

(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.

(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.

Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.

Answer:

Question 2.

Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.

Answer:

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.

The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.

(a) Punjab & Haryana

(b) Jammu & Kashmir

(c) Kerala & Karnataka

(d) None of these

Answer:

(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.

Who is not appointed by the Governor?

(a) The Advocate General of the State

(b) The State Election Commissioner

(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Answer:

(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.

The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Council of Ministers

(c) Speaker

(d) Governor

Answer:

(d) Governor

Question 4.

How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?

(a) 29

(b) 27

(c) 25

(d) 22

Answer:

(c) 25

Question 5.

The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council

Answer:

(b) Governor

Question 6.

The State Government consists of …………… branches.

(a) two

(b) three

(c) five

Answer:

(b) three

Question 7.

Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.

(a) 311

(b) 312

(c) 213

(d) 32

Answer:

(c) 213

Question 8.

The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.

(a) Constitution

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan

Answer:

(a) Constitution

Question 9.

The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:

(aj 231

(b) 240

(c) 245

(d) 235

Answer:

(d) 235

Question 10.

……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Advocate general

(c) Chief Minister

Answer:

(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.

The institution of High Court originated in India in:

(a) 1826

(b) 1816

(c) 1862

(d) 1870

Answer:

(c) 1862

Question 12.

The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.

(a) Rajaraja Cholan

(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

(c) Karikal Cholan

(d) Rajendra Cholan

Answer:

(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.

The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.

The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..

The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..

The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..

The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..

The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..

The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.

The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.

Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

Judicial review

Legislative Assembly

Governor

Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami

Thiru Banvarilal Purohit

Sixty

Permanent

Speaker

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.

5

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (ii)

E. (iii)

Question 2.

Match the Column I with Column II.

6

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (i)

C. (v)

D. (ii)

E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.

Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(b) (A) is false (R) is true

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason

(d) (A) is true but (R) is false

Answer:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.

Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .

(a) (A) is false (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A

(d) (A) is true (R) is false

Answer:

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.

(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.

(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.

(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.

(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.

(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.

(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.

(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.

(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.

Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.

Answer:

The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.

The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.

How the Governor is appointed to a state?

Answer:

The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.

Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.

He also be transferred from one State to another.

If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.

Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.

Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.

Answer:

If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.

What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?

Answer:

In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.

How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?

Answer:

The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .

1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.

1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.

1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.

1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.

Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?

Answer:

The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.

The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.

Where were High Courts first established and when?

Answer:

High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.

How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?

Answer:

At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.

The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.

What do you mean by appellate system?

Answer:

It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.

Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?

Answer:

The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.

It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.

The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?

Answer:

Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.

The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.

No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.

No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.

No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.

How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?

Answer:

A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.

(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.

Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?

Answer:

Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.

What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?

Answer:

The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

Call for returns from them.

Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.

Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and

Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.


Tamilnadu, board, samacheer kalvi, ssc, civics, Chapter 2, Central Government,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

The Constitutional Head of the Union is:

(a) The President

(b) The Chief Justice

(c) The Prime Minister

(d) Council of Ministers

Answer:

(a) The President

Question 2.

Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?

(a) Army

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The President

(d) Judiciary

Answer:

(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.

Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

(a) The President

(b) Attorney General

(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer:

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.

The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………

(a) The President

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) The Prime Minister

(d) Rajya Sabha

Answer:

(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.

The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?

(a) Senior most member of Parliament

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) The President of India

(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Answer:

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.

What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?

(a) 18 Years

(b) 21 Years

(c) 25 Years

(d) 30 Years

Answer:

(c) 25 Years

Question 7.

The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) State Government

(d) Parliament

Answer:

(d) Parliament

Question 8.

Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency

(a) Article 352

(b) Article 360

(c) Article 356

(d) Article 365

Answer:

(b) Article 360

Question 9.

The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:

(a) The President

(b) The Attorney General

(c) The Governor

(d) The Prime Minister

Answer:

(a) The President

Question 10.

Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….

(a) Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Original Jurisdiction

(c) Advisory Jurisdiction

(d) None of these

Answer:

(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.

If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?

(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.

(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.

(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.

Answer:

(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.

………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.

………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.

………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.

The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.

………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.

At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

Money

Prime Minister

Vice-President

Anglo-Indian

Attorney General

65

Supreme Court

28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.

(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.

(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.

(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.

(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Answer:

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.

(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.

(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.

(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Answer:

(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.

Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.

(a) (A) is false but R is true

(b) (A) is true but (R) is false

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)

Answer:

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

1

Answers:

A. (iii)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (v)

E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.

How is President of India elected?

Answer:

The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.

What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?

Answer:

The ministers are classified under three different categories.

Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.

Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.

Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.

What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?

Answer:

Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

He must be a citizen of India.

He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.

He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.

He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.

Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Answer:

Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.

The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.

He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.

What is Money Bill?

Answer:

Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.

List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?

Answer:

Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.

He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.

Answer:

The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:

(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.

Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.

Answer:

Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*

Dispute between two states or more

Dispute between the Centre and the State.

Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.

With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.

The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.

With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.

The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

Protecting the fundamental right.

The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.

Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.

What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?

Answer:

Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.

He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.

He supervises the work of various ministers

The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.

He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.

He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.

Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.

Answer:

Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.

Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.

The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.

It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.

After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.

If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.

List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Answer:

Functions of Lok Sabha

The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.

It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.

Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.

Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha

It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?

The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.

It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.

Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.

Answer:

Mock Parliament:

Role of President

Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.

(mock Parliament video in you tube)

14th National youth Parliament.

Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.

Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

Each class should prepare a list of activities.

This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and

Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.

Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.

Answer:

Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.

The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.

Election to the US President is direct.

Election to the Indian President is indirect.

The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.

The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:

(a) Judiciary

(b) Union Executive

(c) State Legislature

(d) None of the above

Answer:

(b) Union Executive

Question 2.

Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(c) President

(d) Vice – President

Answer:

(c) President

Question 3.

The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Chief Justice

(d) Council of Minister

Answer:

(a) President

Question 4.

Who occupies the second highest office in the country?

(a) President

(b) Vice President

(c) Attorney General

(d) Prime Minister

Answer:

(b) Vice President

Question 5.

Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.

(a) 53(1)

(b) 53 (2)

(c) 53(3)

(d) 51(A)

Answer:

(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.

The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..

(a) 25 years

(b) 35 years

(c) 21 years

Answer:

(b) 35 years

Question 7.

The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.

(a) 3

(b) 6

(c) 9

(d) 12

Answer:

(b) 6

Question 8.

The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members

(a) 250

(b) 238

(c) 245

Answer:

(a) 250

Question 9.

If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Deputy Ministers

(c) Ministers of State

(d) Chief Justice

Answer:

(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.

The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………

(a) elected indirectly

(b) mostly nominated

(c) elected directly as well as indirectly

Answer:

(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.

The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.

(a) Cabinet

(b) Council of States

(c) President

(d) Attorney General

Answer:

(a) Cabinet

Question 12.

The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.

(a) Legislative Assembly

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Electoral College

Answer:

(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.

The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..

(a) 1935

(b) 1940

(c) 1947

(d) 1950

Answer:

(d) 1950

Question 14.

In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.

(a) Original

(b) Appellate

(c) Advisory

(d) Judicial Review

Answer:

(b) Appellate

Question 15.

The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

(a) Supreme Court

(b) High Court

(c) District Court

(d) Revenue Court

Answer:

(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….

The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.

Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….

The present President of India is ……………….

The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.

President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.

………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.

The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by

At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.

When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.

The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.

The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.

The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.

The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.

Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

Parliament

‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’

Chief Justice of India

Thiru, Ramnath Govind

twice

contingency fund

Financial

impeachment

fourteen

Vice-President

Prime Minister

Cabinet

Ministers of State

Rajya Sabha

250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration

Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.

(a) (A) is false, but R is true.

(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.

Answer:

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.

(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.

(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.

(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.

(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.

(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.

(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,

(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.

(a) (i), (ii) are true

(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

(c) (i) and (iii) are true

(d) (i) and (iv) are true

Answer:

(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.

(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.

(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.

(iii) It is the house of the people.

(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) (i) and (iv) are correct

(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.

(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.

(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.

(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.

(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column If.

2

Answer:

A. (ii)

B. (v)

C. (iv)

D. (vi)

E. (i)

F. (iii)

Question 2.

Match the Column I with Column II.

 3

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iv)

C. (i)

D. (iii)

E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.

Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.

Answer:

The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.

The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.

All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.

“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.

Answer:

The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.

What is meant by integrated judicial system?

Answer:

Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.

What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?

Answer:

He should be a citizen of India.

He should not be less than 25 years of age.

He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.

He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.

He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.

Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.

Answer:

The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.

Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?

Answer:

The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.

The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.

Who is the head of the Union Executive?

Answer:

The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.

What do you know about motion of no confidence?

Answer:

Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.

What is the qualification of President of Indi?

Answer:

The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

He should be a citizen of India.

He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.

He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.

He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.

He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.

What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?

Answer:

The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.

Answer:

In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.

The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.

The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.

The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.

Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

Answer:

The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.

Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.

To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.

In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.

He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.

He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.

What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?

Answer:

Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

As the chairman of the house

He regulates the proceeding of the House.

He decides the order of the house.

He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.

He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.

He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.

A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.

What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?

Answer:

When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.

When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.


Tamilnadu, board, samacheer kalvi, ssc, civics, Chapter 1, Indian Constitution,

I. Choose the correct answer

Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?

(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign

(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic

(c) Sovereign, republic, secular,socialist, democratic

(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Answer:

(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.

How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?

(a) once

(b) Twice

(c) Thrice

(d) Never

Answer:

(a) once

Question 3.

The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens:

(a) Double Citizenship

(b) Single Citizenship

(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others

(d) None of the above

Answer:

(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.

A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through …………..

(a) Descent

(b) Registration

(c) Naturalisation

(d) All of the above

Answer:

(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.

Find the odd one out.

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right against Exploitation

(c) Right to Property

(d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Answer:

(c) Right to Property

Question 6.

One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms.

(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.

(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.

(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Answer:

(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Question 7.

If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to:

(a) The Parliament

(b) The Attorney General

(c) The President of India

(d) The Supreme court of India

Answer:

(d) The Supreme court of India

Question 8.

Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

(a) Right to freedom of religion

(b) Right to equality

(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

(d) Right to property

Answer:

(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.

How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?

(a) If the Supreme Court so desires

(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect

(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

(d) All of the above

Answer:

(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.

We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ……………..

(a) American Constitution

(b) Canadian Constitution

(c) Russian Constitution

(d) Irish Constitution

Answer:

(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.

The Directive Principles can be classified into:

(a) Liberal and Communist principles

(b) Socialist and Communist principles

(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles

(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Answer:

(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.

Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?

(a) Article 352

(b) Article 356

(c) Article 360

(d) Article 368

Answer:

(c) Article 360

Question 13.

The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in:

(a) Article 352

(b) Article 356

(c) Article 360

(d) Article 368

Answer:

(d) Article 368

Question 14.

Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?

(i) Sarkaria Commission

(ii) Rajamannar Committee

(iii) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) i, ii and iii

(b) i and ii

(c) i and iii

(d) ii and iii

Answer:

(b) i and ii

II. Fill in the Blanks

The concept of Constitution first originated in ……………….

………………. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.

The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………….

………………. writs are mentioned in Article 32.

Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ……………….

Answers:

III. Match the following

Answer:

A. (iii)

B. (i)

C. (ii)

D. (v)

E. (iv)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.

What is the Constitution?

Answer:

A Constitution is a set of rules that form the basis of any kind of a state that we as citizens, desire to live in.

Question 2.

What is meant by citizenship?

Answer:

Citizenship is the state of being a person belonging to a particular country’. Having enjoying rights, privileges and duty to perform to the country. The Constitution of India provide for a single citizenship for the whole of India.

Question 3.

How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?

Answer:

There are six types of fundamental rights listed by the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.

What is a Writ?

Answer:

A Writ is an order or command issued by a court writing under its seal. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Question 5.

What are the classical languages in India?

Answer:

There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.

What is National Emergency?

Answer:

National Emergency is declared by the President. If India’s security is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat under Article 352.

Question 7.

List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.

Answer:

There are

Legislative relations

Administrative relations

Financial relations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.

Answer:

Constitution is the set of rules framed by the Constituent Assembly by which we are governed and abide by it.

Salient features of Indian Constitution:

It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitution in the world.

It is partly rigid and partly flexible.

Most of its provisions are borrowed from the Constitutions of various countries.

It establishes a Federal system of government.

It establishes Parliamentary system.

It provides an independent Judiciary.

It provides single citizenship.

Introduces Universal Adult franchise, the right to vote to all citizens above the age of 18 without any discrimination.

It makes special provision for minorities scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes etc.

Question 2.

Point out the Fundamental Rights.

Answer:

The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –

(i) Right to Equality: It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.

(ii) Right to Freedom: It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

(iii) “Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.

(iv) Right to religion: It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.

(v) Cultural and Educational rights: It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 3.

Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Answer:

Article 32 of our Constitution deals with right to Constitutional remedies to safeguard other fundamental rights through writs.

A Writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.

It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are specified in the order of the court.

Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs namely – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.

According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Article 32 is “ the heart and soul of the Constitution”.

“Supreme Court’ is called the “ Guardian of our Constitution”.

Question 4.

Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

Answer:

Fundamental Rights:

Derived from the Constitution of the U.S.A.

Even the Government cannot take away or abridge these rights.

These rights can be enforceable by law.

The rights have legal sanctions.

Strengthen the political democracy of the country.

They are natural and basic rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy:

Drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.

These are mere instructions to the Government.

They are not enforceable by law in any court.

These directives have moral and political sanctions.

Implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.

These lead to protect human rights.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

VI. Project and activity

Question 1.

Collect information about the various members of the Constituent Assembly and their social background.

Answer:

Members of the constituent Assembly and their Social background.

Refer: https : //www.scrip.com: document. 15

https://www.wikipedia.org:wiki:const.

Question 2.

Collect the pictures of the Members of the Drafting Committee and their social background.

Answer:

Drafting committee is the most important body responsible for creating the constitution of India.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad: President of the Drafting committee:

Ambedkar. An Indian Jurist, Social Reformer and Politician. Hailed as “Father of Indian Constitution’’. Campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables supported the Rights of women and labour.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution 3

Indian political leader. A lawyer by training. Joined the Indian National congress during the Independence movement and became a major leader from the Region of Bihar. He was the first President of India after Independence and served for full two terms from 1950 – 1962. The President who served foreth longest term.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution 4

Other members:

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. He was an Indian Lawy er. He also served as the Advocate General of Madras state from 1929 to 1944.

N. Gopalswami Iyengar: He was the Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 1937 – 1943 and was appointed as council of state from 1943 – 1947. During that time he was the chairman of the committee for the Indianisation of Army from 1947 – 1948. He served as minister without Port folio in the 1st Cabinet under Pandit. Jawaharlal Nehru.

K.M. Munshi: A lawyer by profession. He was an Indian Independence movement activist, politician, writer and an educationist from Gujarat State.

Mohammad Saadullah B.L: A youthful Chairman of Gauhati (Guwahati) Municipality in 1919. Tali and an Athletic. M.A.BL. He served as the Minister incharge of Education and Agriculture for Assam from 1924 – 1934. He was the Prime Minister of Assam under British India.

B.L. Mitter: Ex-advocate General. The one and only official subreddit for India (Nehru’s cabinet) Governor of Bihar between 1962 – 1967. Resigned from the drafting committee due to ill health. N. Madhava Rao (Diwan of Mysore state) had replaced B.L. Mitter.

D.R Khaitan: A renounced lawyer. Scion of Khaitan business family ( a new firm). Died in 1948 and T.T. Krishnamachari replaced D.R Khaitan

TB Page 175

VII. Life Skill.

Question 1.

Prepare a chart containing the Rights and Duties of citizens and display it in your class room.

Answer:

I. Right to Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution 9

Art. 14 – Equality before law.

Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.

Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability.

Art. 18 – Abolition of titles except military and academic.

II. Right to Freedom

Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.

Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.

Art. 21A – Right to elementary education.

Art. 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

III. Right Against Exploitation

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution 11

Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

IV. Right to Religion

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution 12

Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.

Art. 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.

Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

V. Cultural and Educational Rights

Art. 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.

Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

List of Fundamental Duties:

To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom.

To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.

To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002 has also introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under 51 A(k) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between age of 6 and 14 years).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

TB Page 172

Question 1.

Violation of which Fundamental right is associated with the theme depleted in the stamps?

Answer:

The theme (child labour) depicted in the stamps is associated with Fundamental Right. Right against Exploitation. Art 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (violation of employment children).

TB Page 175

Activity:

Question 1.

List out the recognised languages in the Eighth schedule of the Constitution:

Answer:

The Eighth schedule of the Constitution has recognised at present 22 languages .

They are:

Assamee

Bengali

Bodo

Dogri

Gujarathi

Hindi

Kannada

Kashmiri

Kenkani

Maithili

Malayalam

Manipuri

Marathi

Nepali

Oriya

Punjabi

Sanskrit

Santhali

Sindhi

Tamil

Telugu

Urdu

Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

The Government of India granted ………………. languages as classical language status.

(a) 6

(b) 12

(c) 22

(d) 14

Answer:

(a) 6

Question 2.

Which of the following is given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution?

(a) Liberty

(b) Equality

(c) Fraternity

(d) All the above

Answer:

(d) All the above

Question 3.

The constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December ………………. 1946.

(a) 1st

(b) 5th

(c) 6th

(d) 26th

Answer:

(c) 6th

Question 4.

‘Education’ comes under which list?

(a) Union list

(b) State list

(c) Concurrent list

(d) None of the above

Answer:

(c) Concurrent list

Question 5.

Every year 26th January is observed as ……………….

(a) Independence day

(b) Gandhi Jayanthi

(c) Voters day

(d) Republic day

Answer:

(d) Republic day

Question 6.

Indian Constitution is the …………… Constitution in the world.

(a) Longest

(b) Shortest

(c) Lengthiest

Answer:

(c) Lengthiest

Question 7.

In the preamble of our Constitution the slogans of ………………. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is given importance.

(a) French Revolution

(b) Russian Revolution

(c) American Revolution

(d) German Revolution

Answer:

(a) French Revolution

Question 8.

The Constituent Assembly was set up under ……………..

(a) Cripps Mission

(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer:

(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

Question 9.

………………. emergency can be declared under Article 356.

(a) National

(b) Financial

(c) State

(d) None of these

Answer:

(c) State

Question 10.

Apart from B.R. Ambedkar, how many other members were in the Drafting Committee?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 7

Answer:

(b) 6

II. Fill in the Blanks

Our Constitution is concerned with the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and between ………………. and ……………….

H.C. Mukherjee and ………………. were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the constituent Assembly at the time of framing Constitution.

The original Constitution was hand written by ……………….

Our Constitution is the ………………. of all the written Constitutions of the world.

India is a ………………. state.

The right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination is ……………….

The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ………………. drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru

Preamble begins with the phrase ……………….

The citizenship Act has been amended is far ………………. times.

The ………………. writ safeguards people from illegal arrest.

Under Article 21 A ………………. education was made as fundamental right to provide early childhood care and education.

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred ………………. subjects from state list to concurrent list.

Article 51A specified for the first time a code of fundamental duties of ………………. the citizens.

Parliament enacted the official language Act in the year

Answers:

Union and the States

V.T. Krishnamachari

Prem Behari Narain Raizada

lengthiest

Secular

Universal Adult Franchise

‘Objective Resolution’

We the people of India

eight

Habeas Corpus

elementary

five

ten

1963

III. Match the Following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:

A. (iii)

B. (iv)

C. (v)

D. (ii)

E. (i)

Question 2.

Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:

A. (iv)

B. (iii)

C. (i)

D. (v)

E. (ii)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.

Mention the phrase with which the Preamble of our Constitution begins? What does this imply?

Answer:

The Preamble of our Constitution beings with the phrase “We, the People of India”. This implies that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 2.

Write a brief note on how our Constitution is framed?

Answer:

A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to frame the Constitution . The Assembly consisted 389 members Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the president and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Chairman of the drafting committee. The Assembly worked through various committees and finally completed the draft. It was adopted on November 26th 1949. Came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 3.

What is mandamus?

Answer:

Mandamus is a kind of writ that protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.

Question 4.

What does Preamble refer to ? What does it contain?

Answer:

The term Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.

It consists of ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution.

It is described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’.

Question 5.

Mention three ways of amendments in our Constitution.

Answer:

Our Constitution can be amended in the following three ways –

Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament.

Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament.

Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State legislatives.

Question 6.

Name the three basic principles of our Constitution adopted from die slogan of French Revolution (1789).

Answer:

Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all.

It gives Equality of status and opportunity.

It wants to promote Fratemity(brotherhood) among all Indians.

Question 7.

Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the Constitution.

Answer:

Abolition of titles lies in Article 18.

Question 8.

What change is made in Article 45 by 86th Amendment Act?

Answer:

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.

The amended directive request the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Question 9.

Which is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution?

Answer:

The single biggest source of Indian Constitution is Government of India Act 1935.

Question 10.

Name the five subjects that are transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List.

Answer:

Education, Forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds and administration of justice, Constitution and organisation of all courts except the supreme court and the high courts.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.

Mention any five Fundamental duties of the citizens of India.

Answer:

To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the National struggle for freedom.

To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 2.

How can a person acquire citizenship of our country?

Answer:

According to the citizenship Act 1955, the citizenship could be acquired by any of these five ways.

By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after January 26th, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after January 26th 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

By Registration: Aperson can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

By Naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

By incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be the citizen of India.

Question 3.

What are the circumstances that compel the President to declare an emergency in a State?

Answer:

(i) Under Article 356, the President has the power to declare an emergency in a State if the Governor reports that a situation has risen under which the Government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) The continuance of such an emergency beyond one year is possible only if emergency under Article 352 are in operation or the Election Commission certifies that there are difficulties in holding Assembly Elections. Maximum duration of the emergency can be three years.

(iii) In this kind of emergency, the States lose much of their autonomy in legislative and executive matters.

(iv) After such an announcement State legislative is suspended and the State is governed by the Governor on behalf of the President.

Question 4.

List the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.

Answer:

Under part IVA of our Constitution Article 51A declares the duty of a Citizen of India.

To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired die national struggle for freedom.

To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.

To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

To Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes,

rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.

To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

To safe guard public property and to abjure violence.

To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity making the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.

To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Under 51 A (k) 11th fundamental duty.

Question 5.

Write briefly about Acquisition of Citizenship.

Answer:

The Citizenship Act of 1935 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, “viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.

According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.

(i) By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after 26 January, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

(ii) By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent. If his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

(iii) By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

(iv) By Naturalisation: A foreigner can acquire Indian Citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

(v) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the “territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

Question 6.

Write a paragraph on Constitutional Reform commissions.

Answer:

The National commission to review the working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000, headed by M.N Venkatachaliah. In April 2007 a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchchi was set up by the Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter relations.


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