Chapter 6 | Aster Classes

Q1.कृती पूर्ण करा.

(a)‘रोजची भूक भागवण्यासाठी कराव्या लागणाऱ्या कष्टांमुळे आयुष्याचे दिवस वाया गेलेत’ या आशयाची कवितेतील ओळ शोधा.

SOLUTION

भाकरीचा चंद्र शोधण्यातच जिंदगी बरबाद झाली.

(b)कवीचा प्रयत्नवाद आणि आशावाद दाखवणारी ओळ लिहा.

SOLUTION

दु:ख पेलावे कसे, पुन्हा जगावे कसे याच शाळेत शिकलो.


Q2.एका शब्दांत उत्तर लिहा.

(a)कवीचे सर्वस्व असलेली गोष्ट- 

SOLUTION

कवीचे सर्वस्व असलेली गोष्ट- कवीचे हात

(b)कवीचा जवळचा मित्र- 

SOLUTION

कवीचा जवळचा मित्र- अश्रू


Q3.खालील शब्दसमूहांचा तुम्हांला कळलेला अर्थ लिहा.

(a)माना उंचावलेले हात

SOLUTION

कवीचे सर्वस्व असलेले हात नेहमी कष्ट उपसण्यात व्यस्त होते. याच हातांनी कधी त्यांना पोटापाण्यासाठी काम मिळवून दिले, तर कधी नवनिर्मिती करून मान-सन्मान मिळवून दिला.

(b)कलम केलेले हात

SOLUTION

कलम करणे म्हणजे छाटणे, घाव घालून तोडणे. प्रस्तुत शब्दसमूहातून कवीच्या हातांना नवनिर्मिती करण्यापासून रोखले गेले किंवा त्यांच्या नवनिर्मितीची, काव्यप्रतिभेची, सृजनशक्तीची कोंडी झाली, त्यांच्या हातांना उपेक्षा सहन करावी लागली असा अर्थ व्यक्त होतो.

(c)दारिद्र्याकडे गहाण पडलेले हात

SOLUTION

कवीचे नवनिर्मितीक्षम, सृजनशील हात जे त्याच्यासाठी सर्वस्व आहेत, ते नवनिर्माणाची शक्ती, काव्यप्रतिभा असूनही रोजची भूक भागवण्यासाठी खस्ता खाण्यात, कष्ट उपसण्यातच व्यस्त होते.


Q4.खालील ओळींचे रसग्रहण करा.

(a)‘दोन दिवस वाट पाहण्यात गेले; दोन दु:खात गेले

हिशोब करतो आहे किती राहिलेत डोईवर उन्हाळे’

SOLUTION

‘दोन दिवस’ ही कवी नारायण सुर्वे यांची कविता कामगारांच्या जीवनाचे वास्तव चित्रण करते.

कष्टकऱ्याचे संपूर्ण आयुष्य अखंड परिश्रम करण्यात निघून जाते. आयुष्यात काही दिवस सुखाची वाट पाहत जगावे लागते, तर काही दिवस दु:ख, दारिद्र्याशी झुंजावे लागते. आजवरचे सगळे आयुष्य जरी असेच दिवसादिवसांनी सरत गेले, तरीही त्यापुढील आयुष्यात असे किती तापदायक उन्हाळे सहन करावे लागणार आहेत याची गणती नसते. असे तापदायक आयुष्य जगणाऱ्या कष्टकरी कामगाराच्या जीवनाचे दर्शन यात घडते.

(b)’दु:ख पेलावे आणि पुन्हा जगावे’, या वाक्यामागील तुम्हांला जाणवलेला विचार तुमच्या शब्दांत स्पष्ट करा.

SOLUTION

‘दोन दिवस’ ही कवी नारायण सुर्वे यांची कविता कामगारांच्या जीवनाचे वास्तव चित्रण करते. नेहमी जगाच्या सुखाचा विचार करणारा हा कष्टकरी या जगातच रममाण होऊन जगतो. दारिद्र्याचे चटके सहन करत, सतत येणाऱ्या अडचणी, दु:खे पेलून, त्यावर मात करून तो आपले जीवन जगतच राहतो. हे सर्व सहन करण्याची, संकटांवर, दु:खावर मात करण्याची शिकवण जगाच्या शाळेत त्याला मिळते. त्यामुळे, तो कधीही दु:खाचा बाऊ करत नाही किंवा निराशेने खचून जात नाही. आपणही त्याच्याप्रमाणे जीवनात येणाऱ्या दु:खातून, अडचणींतून वाट काढत आयुष्य नव्याने जगायला शिकायला हवे असा प्रेरणादायी विचार वरील ओळींतून लक्षात येतो.

(c)कवितेत व्यक्त झालेल्या कष्टकऱ्यांच्या जीवनाविषयी तुमच्या भावना लिहा.

SOLUTION

कवी नारायण सुर्वे यांच्या ‘दोन दिवस’ या कवितेत कामगारांच्या जीवनाचे वास्तव चित्रित केले आहे. अन्न, वस्त्र, निवारा या मूलभूत गरजा पूर्ण करण्यासाठीही या कष्टकऱ्याना रोज प्रचंड कष्ट करावे लागतात. हे कष्ट उपसण्याच्या नादात, त्या कामगाराला आपल्या सुंदर आयुष्याचा, आजूबाजूच्या सुंदर निसर्गाचा आस्वाद घ्यायला वेळच नसतो.त्याला रोजच्या पोटापाण्याचा प्रश्न सोडवण्यासाठी आपले संपूर्ण आयुष्य खर्ची घालावे लागते. गरिबी कायम सोबतीला असते. त्याच्यातील नवनिर्मितीच्या क्षमतेची उपेक्षा होते. कष्टमय जीवनाला अश्रूंची सोबत असते. दु:ख पचवण्याचे, त्यावर मात करून पुढे जात राहण्याचे बळ गोळा करावे लागते.

झोतभट्टीतील पोलाद ज्याप्रमाणे तावून सुलाखून बाहेर पडते त्याप्रमाणे कामगारांचे आयुष्य नाना तऱ्हेच्या संकटांनी, दु:खांनी होरपळून निघत असते, तरीही हा कामगार नेहमी कष्ट करत राहतो. या दु:खांत होरपळल्यामुळे त्याचे सामर्थ्य जणू वाढीस लागते. दु:खांचा, परिस्थितीचा बाऊ न करता, सकारात्मक दृष्टिकोन ठेवून आपले आयुष्य पुढे जगतच राहतो. अशाप्रकारे, कष्टाशी, दु:खांशी झुंज देण्यात या कष्टकऱ्यांचे अवघे आयुष्य व्यतीत होते.

(d)’कवितेत व्यक्त झालेले जीवनसत्य’, याबाबत तुमचे विचार स्पष्ट करा.

SOLUTION

नारायण सुर्वे यांच्या ‘दोन दिवस’ या कवितेत कामगारांच्या जीवनाचे वास्तव चित्रण करताना ‘भाकरीचा चंद्र शोधण्यातच जिंदगी बरबाद झाली’, या शब्दांत कवीने भीषण जीवनसत्य मांडले आहे.

रोजची भूक भागवण्यासाठीही जिथे अपार कष्ट करावे लागतात, या पोटामागे संपूर्ण आयुष्य खर्ची घालावे लागते अशा कष्टकऱ्यांचे जीवन खूपदा सुखाची वाट पाहण्यात वाया जाते किंवा दु:खांशी झुंज देण्यात, अडचणींचा सामना करण्यातच निघून जाते. त्यांचे आयुष्य रणरणत्या उन्हाळ्याचे असते. पोटाची आग शांत करण्यासाठी त्यांना भाकरीच्या चंद्राची वाट पाहावी लागते, तिचा शोध घ्यावा लागतो. अशा कष्टकर्यांच्या जीवनातील व्यथा, वेदना मांडून कवीने जीवनसत्याचे दर्शन घडवले आहे. दु:खमय परिस्थितीतही सकारात्मक विचार करत आयुष्य जगणाऱ्या कामगाराचे चित्रण यात घडते.

completed


ssc, English, kumarbharathi, chapter 6, The alchemy of nature, Maharashtra, board, full, solution,

Q1.Rearrange the good qualities in each set, so that the first letter of each of the words should make a meaningful word. Join the sets and get a message.

Set 1: Understanding/Adaptable/Tolerant/Neat/ Encouraging Resourceful.

– The word is _____________

Set 2: Selfless/Inspiring

– The word is ____________

Set 3: Youthful/Modest

– The word is ___________

Set 4: Affectionate/Compassionate/Empathetic/ Earnest/Honest/Reliable/Trustworthy

– The word is _____________

– The message is _______________

SOLUTION

Set 1: Neat/Adaptable/Tolerant/Understanding Resourceful/Encouraging

Set 2: Inspiring/Selfless

Set 3: Modest/Youthful

Set 4: Trustworthy/Earnest/Affectionate /Compassionate/Honest/Empathetic/Reliable

The message is: Nature is my teacher.

Q2.Various aspects of Nature have special features that make them differ from one another.

For example, Birds:- appearance, shape, colour, size, food habits, habitat, sound etc.

Write such special features of each of the following.

  • Land- _______________
  • Water- ______________
  • Trees- _______________
  • Animals- ____________
  • Insects- _____________

SOLUTION

  • Land- geographical features, colours, shapes, appearance, chemical composition, uses.
  • Water- width and length of various water bodies, chemical composition (sweet water, salt water).
    colours (according to sand beds), rocks, coral reefs, variety of sea creatures.
  • Trees– height and shape of leaves, changing (or unchanging) colour during seasons, fruits, flowers, medicinal products, types of soil, climate and habitat required for their existence.
  • Animals- shapes, sizes and colours, different habitats, kinds: wild or domestic, uses.
  • Insects- shapes, sizes. colours, number of legs, different habitats, sounds, uses.

Q3.Make a list of living creatures in the alphabetical order. You can write more than one beginning with the same letter.

SOLUTION

A – AnacondaN – Nighthawk
B – ButterflyO – Ostrich
C – CrabP – Penguin
D – DogQ – Quail (Bird)
E – ElephantR – Rooster
F – FrogS – Sheep
G – GoatT – Tiger
H – HorseU – Umbrella Cockatoo (Bird)
I – Iguana (Lizard)V – Vulture
J – JellyfishW – Whale
K – KangarooX – Xenopus (Frog)
L – LionY – Yak
M – MonkeyZ – Zebra

Q1.What things in nature teach us the following:

(a)Nothing is impossible to achieve ____________.

SOLUTION

Nothing is impossible to achieve ants; small bits of grass peeping from cracks in the concrete.

(b)Problems are not permanent ___________.

SOLUTION

Problems are not permanent trees that are bare in winter.

(c)Be humble and adjust ____________

SOLUTION

Be humble and adjust water.

(d)Make the best use of time and opportunity__________.

SOLUTION

Make the best use of time and opportunity Hibiscus flower.

(e)Be persistent ____________.

SOLUTION

Be persistent water.

(f)Many hands make work light ____________.

SOLUTION

Many hands make work light ants.

(g)Delicate structures are not a sign of weakness ______.

SOLUTION

Delicate structures are not a sign of weakness spider webs.

Q2.Read the question from the lesson. What do they imply?

(a)Are you listening?

SOLUTION

It implies that one must listen.

(b)What if we too had lived our lives, however short, to the fullest?

SOLUTION

It implies that we too should live our lives to the fullest, however short they may be.

(c)What if we too are consistent, organized, focused…?

SOLUTION

It implies that we too could do wonders if we were consistent, organized, focussed…..

Q3.Go through the lesson again and complete the flow-chart that highlights the life of a ‘hibiscus’ flower.

SOLUTION

Q4.Fill the web

SOLUTION

Q5.The writer explains the contrasting features of ‘water’ and ‘rock’ in the lesson. Write all the features of both water and rock in the given table.

WaterRock
1.1.
2.2.
3.3.
4.4.

SOLUTION

WaterRock
1. gentle1. hard
2. persistent2. humble
3. persevering3. obedient
4. determined4. adaptable

Q6.The writer bas very positively described the different things in nature. Discuss with your partner the special features of coach one of them. Add on the list.

Part of NatureSpecial featureValue learnt
1. Rainbow  
2. Caterpillar  
3.   
4.  
5.  
6.  
7.  

SOLUTION

Part of NatureSpecial featureValue learnt
1. Rainbowcheer
fulness; acceptance.
Even when there are problems in the surroundings, we must be cheerful and spread colour and happiness.
2. Caterpillarpatience; acceptanceThere is a bright and beautiful future ahead.
3. hibiscus floweroptimism; cheer
fulness
However short life may be, we must live it to the fullest.
4. rocksobedience to nature; adjustment; humilityObey the commands of nature; adjust to the situation; be humble
5. bits of grassoptimism; perse
verance
However impossible things may look, there is an opening.
6. bare treeoptimism, faith; convictionHowever difficult things are in the present, it will not remain so forever. With conviction we should remind ourselves that this too will pass.
7. waterperse
verance; deter
mination; humility
(i) Even colossal problems surmounted if we persist. can be(ii) Learn to adapt to others without any hint of ego

Q7.Think and answer in your own words.

(a)How should you deal with difficulties and problems?

SOLUTION

When I come across problems in life, I turn towards nature for inspiration. I try to understand how the different elements in nature deal with their difficulties and try to solve my own problems in the same way.

(b)‘An oyster turns a grain of sand into a pearl.’ What can we learn from this example?

SOLUTION

We learn that there is a mysterious power or magic in nature that can change things dramatically.

(c)How does nature succeed in its ‘Alchemy’? What can it turn a small person into?

SOLUTION

Nature succeed in its ‘Alchemy’ by changing things in a mysterious way. It can turn a small person into anything he/she wishes; one touches nature and becomes gold oneself.

(d)Which two aspects of nature teach us to accept change and adjust according to the situation?

SOLUTION

With gentle humility, water changes its form according to the dictates of the sun and the wind. The bare trees wait patiently during the winter months for the arrival of spring, when they get fresh green leaves. These two aspects of nature teach us to accept change and adjust according to the situation.

(e)Why does the writer begin by quoting the lines from William Blake’s poem ‘Auguries of Innocence’?

SOLUTION

These lines show that if we pause to reflect. there is much beauty in nature and plenty that we can learn from it. The write-up expands on the same idea. thus reflecting the philosophy of the poetic lines by William Blake.

Q8.(A)Pick out from lesson 10 examples of each.

  • Concrete Nouns (that you can touch or see)
    For example, sand
  • Abstract Nouns (that which you cannot touch or see
    For example, infinity

SOLUTION

  • Concrete Nouns (that you can touch or see)

For example, sand

  1. water
  2. rock
  3. flower
  4. tree
  5. grass
  6. leaves
  7. system
  8. Butterfly
  9. dawd
  10. wind
  • Abstract Nouns (that which you cannot touch or see)

For example, infinity

  1. Imagination
  2. Joy
  3. Destiny
  4. Atternity
  5. Deeds
  6. Time
  7. Space
  8. Idea
  9. Ego
  10. Elegance

Q8.(B)Underline the verbs in the sentence and say whether it is Transitive (needing an Object) or Intransitive (need not have an Object).

1.One can witness and experience the beauty of Heaven

SOLUTION

One can witness and experience the beauty of Heaven.

witness and experience are the verbs.

∴ It is Transitive.

2.It leaves me in complete awe.

SOLUTION

It leaves me in complete awe.

leaves are the verb.

∴ It is Intransitive.

3.Nature soothes and nurtures.

SOLUTION

Nature soothes and nurtures.

Soothes and nurtures are the verbs.

∴ It is Intransitive.

4.It withers completely.

SOLUTION

It withers completely.

withers are the verb.

∴ It is Intransitive.

5.The flower comes to life only for a day.

SOLUTION

The flower comes to life only for a day.

comes are the verb.

∴ It is Intransitive.

6.A rainbow colours the entire sky.

SOLUTION

A rainbow colours the entire sky.

colours are the verb.

∴ It is Transitive.

7.It smiles and dances

SOLUTION

It smiles and dances.

smiles and dances are the verbs.

∴ It is Intransitive.

Q9.(A)Compose about 8-10 sets of imaginary dialogue between a bird, a tree and its fruit regarding the effects of environmental changes. Write it in your notebooks.

SOLUTION

Conversation between a bird, a tree and its fruit:

  • Conversation 1:

Bird: Hi there, tree! How are you doing?

Tree: Not too well. I can’t breathe. There’s too much of dust and smoke here.

Bird: What, here too? I’ve come here to escape just that!

Fruit: Wrong place, birdie. Look at me: do I look healthy? I’m not growing. Too many insecticides have been sprayed on me.

Bird: Oh, oh. Maybe I should leave this place too.

  • Conversation 2:

Tree: Oh, no! Something is happening! My roots are getting loose!

Bird: That’s called erosion. Soil erosion.

Tree: What happens next?

Bird: The next time it rains heavily-boom! Down you will go! And away I will fly.

Tree: Can’t someone help me?

Fruit: What about me?

Q9.(B)Prepare a Fact file of any of the following plants/trees, using the points given.

[coconut / neem / basil / cactus / apple]

  • Name of Plant/Tree _________
  • Scientific name ___________
  • Region and climate ___________
  • Features ___________
  • Growth _____________
  • Size, shape and colour ____________
  • Uses __________
  • Any special feature ________

SOLUTION

Profile of the Coconut Tree and Fruit

  1. Names:
    English name Coconut;
    Sanskrit name – Narikela;
    Hindi name – Nariyal.
  2. Scientific name:
    cocos nucifera; belongs to the family ‘Palmae’ or the palm family (also known as Arecaceae).
  3. Region and Climate:
    Tropical and sub tropical coastal regions, especially near sea beaches.
  4. Features:
    i. Fruit: has a thick fibrous coir over the hard shell: inside the kernel colourless liquid;
    ii. leaves: feather-shaped and split into lots of leaflets.
  5. Growth:
    Coconut trees can grow from 15 to 30 metres in height in plantations
  6. Size and shape:
    Coconut fruits are oval in shape. The trunk of the coconut tree is ringed with scars where old leaves have fallen. The top of the trunk is crowned with a rosette of leaves. The leaves can grow up to 7 feet long and can have 250 leaflets.
  7. Uses:
    i. Coir weaving and leaves: matting, thatching and
    ii. Hard outer shell: about 10 to 15 inches in length: used to make articles such as spoons, eating utensils, charcoal, etc.
    iii. Inside of the shell: lined with a white edible layer called the meat: used for cooking or extraction of oil, making of soaps or cosmetics: also to make chemical Industrial and medicinal products: contains coconut water which is very nutritious.
    iv. Husk and leaves: used as material to make a variety of products for furnishing and decorating
  8. Any special feature:
    Known in India as kalpavriksha’ or the tree of heaven’ because of its many uses: the term coconut is derived from the 16th century Portuguese and Spanish. meaning grinning face from the three small holes on the coconut shell that resemble human facial features.

Q10.’Impossible’ itself says ‘I M possible’. Do you agree? Justify your answer by citing something that you have experienced or heard from someone.

SOLUTION

Yes, I agree. It is possible to do the most difficult of things providing we have the will and conviction to do so. The example that comes to my mind as justification is that of Sudha Chandran, the dancer. Though her leg was amputated below the knee, with great grit and determination she restarted dancing and went on to become a famous dancer and actress. This shows that one can do things which seem to be impossible.

Q11.You have an environment protection week celebration in your school. You have invited an environmentalist. Your friend interviews him/her about how to save the environment. Frame suitable Interview Questions

SOLUTION

Jai interviews Mr. Ali, an environmentalist:

Jai: Good morning. Sir. Welcome to our school. would like to ask you a few questions for a write-up in your school magazine. My first question: What is your opinion about the concept of having an environment protection week’s celebration?

Mr. Ali: I think it’s a wonderful idea, though I would not call it a “celebration’.

Jai: Why is that, sir?

Mr. Ali: Well, you have a celebration when you are happy about something. In our town, the protection of the environment is so poor that I, as an environmentalist, am not at all happy about it.

Jai: Can you give us some tips to protect the environment?

Mr. Ali: Certainly, my boy. First of all, we should grow more trees wherever possible. It should be made mandatory for every factory, office. residential building, etc. to plant trees before starting construction. If trees have to be cut down for any purpose, efforts must be made to transplant them.

Jai: What about the menace of plastic, sir?

Mr. Ali: We cannot eliminate plastic completely: however, the thickness of plastic bags and the methods of disposal should be made clear to all. Air, water and noise pollution must be dealt with too.

Jai: Please expand on that, sir.

Mr. Ali: Well, industrial and vehicular pollution must be controlled: water bodies must be kept clean. Those who break rules must be penalized. Loudspeakers must be banned during the night hours. Oh, there are lots of things to be done, lots of things.

Jai: Thank you sir, for giving some of your precious time for this interview.

Q12.Write a News Report on the ‘Environment Day’ celebrated in your school.

SOLUTION

Environment Day Celebrations

Nagpur, June 7 World Environment Day was celebrated in New Era School with great fanfare on June 5. The main purpose of the celebration was to spread awareness about the need to protect the environment and the ways to do it.

The day was flagged off by a tree plantation drive in the locality. 300 quick-growing trees, which do not need much water on a daily basis, were planted near the school wall and in the surrounding area. An eminent environmentalist, Mr. A.T. All spoke on the ways to protect the environment. He also judged the Posters and Photographs’ exhibition and gave away prizes for the best entries Environmentally-friendly articles like disposable plates and cups made from bamboo and banana stem, bags made from leaf waste, etc. were on sale. Students gave continuous powerpoint presentations on the threats to the environment. Last but not the least, was the spirited debate on the topic Man: The worst enemy of the Environment’.

All in all the day was a great success, and has certainly made a difference to the way we view our environment

– Josh Matthew New Era School

Q13.Just For Laughs! Enjoy!

Divide the class into two groups. On 12 to 15 slips of paper, Group A writes 12 to 15 conditional clauses beginning with ‘If’.

(For example, If I work very hard, )

Group B writes 12 to 15 main clauses.)

(For example, I would/shall have a pizza.)

Now, one student from Group ‘A’ reads the first conditional clause (possibility) and one student from Group ‘B’ reads the first main clause. It forms crazy sentences, just for laughter and fun. ENJOY!

SOLUTION

Do it yourself.

COMPLETED


Chapter 6, Tertiary Economic Activities, geography, hsc, ebalbharathi, solution,

Chapter 6: Tertiary Economic Activities

1.Complete the chain:

ABC
(1) Matheran(1) Tea(1) Communication
(2) GPS(2) Atlantic Ocean(2) Tertiary Activity
(3) Sri Lanka(3) Satellite(3) Export
(4) Panama Canal(4) Tourism(4) Pacific Ocean

SOLUTION

ABC
(1) Matheran(1) Tourism(1) Tertiary Activity
(2) GPS(2) Satellite(2) Communication
(3) Sri Lanka(3) Tea(3) Export
(4) Panama Canal(4) Atlantic Ocean(4) Pacific Ocean

Choose the correct option:

1.Tertiary activities include

OPTIONS

  • Use of natural resources
  • Finished product
  • Raw material
  • Transportation

2.Natural ports

OPTIONS

  • Kochi
  • Finished product
  • Raw material
  • Transportation

3.Trans-Australian Railway connects

OPTIONS

  • Perth – Sydney
  • Perth – Vladivostok
  • Sydney – Vancouver
  • Vancouver – Vladivostok

Give geographical reasons:

1.Tertiary activities include both services and exchange.

SOLUTION

Transportation, communication, trade and commerce are the main tertiary activities. Road, rail and airways are the important modes of transportation, which help in exchange of goods and services. Therefore, it is a service activity. Transportation provides facilities for the movement of goods from areas of surplus to areas of scarcity produced in primary and secondary activities. Credit facilities, banking facilities, marketing are also tertiary activities, they provide services to people. Postal services, shopkeepers, vegetable sellers, fruit sellers, etc., are also included in service activities.

2.The proportion of airways as means of transportation is increasing.

SOLUTION

Air transport is an important enabler to achieve economic growth and development. In the global world, there is exchange of goods between countries. Therefore, there is more use of air transport to carry perishable, valuable and light goods from surplus areas to scarcity areas. It facilitates integration into global economy and provides vital connectivity on a national, regional and international scale. Nowadays tourism is the fastest growing industry; air transport is more used for international tourism. Therefore, the proportion of airways as means of transportation is increasing.

3.Geographical diversity is responsible for trade to occur.

SOLUTION

The geographical diversity is the set of physical, human and cultural elements differentiated from each other that converge in the relatively small geographic space that is part of the same zone, region or country. If you take into consideration natural regions of the world, each region is different from another. The natural resource available in one country will be different from the ones available in different regions. There is variation in climate, soil, minerals, forest, relief, water supply etc. Depending upon the availability of geographical factors, there is specialisation of certain economic activities in certain areas and there is trade from surplus areas to scarcity areas. For example, in one region, plenty of oil is available while in another region no oil reserves are available. This variation in distribution of oil will be responsible for the development of trade between oil rich and oil poor countries. Thus, geographical diversity is responsible for trade to occur.

Short notes:

1.Importance of satellites as means of communication.

SOLUTION

A communications satellite is an artificial satellite that relays and amplifies radio telecommunication signals via, transponder. Communications satellites are used for television, telephone, radio, internet and military applications. The information about physical and human factors is obtained from satellite communication. Satellite communication is used in remote islands, in some countries and continents where landline telecommunication is rare or not available. As television becomes the main market, its demand for satellite communication becomes very important. Satellites are also used for internet communication, military communications, etc. Thus, importance of satellite as means of communication is increasing.

2.Role of transportation in trade.

SOLUTION

Transport support trade and industry in carrying raw material to the place of production and distribution of finished products for consumption. Transport means to make goods available to consumers. Transport makes possible movement of goods from one place to another with great ease and speed. Trade means exchange of goods and services. In trade there is movement of goods from surplus areas to scarcity areas. The movement of goods is possible only because of transport. In other words, without the help of transport development of trade is not possible. Thus, transport plays an important role in economic development and globalisation of trade.

3.Tourism and GDP.

SOLUTION

Tourism is vital for the success of many economies around the world. Tourism boosts the revenue of the economy, creates thousands of jobs and develops the infrastructures of the country. It also creates jobs in agriculture, communication, health and educational sectors. The government that depends on tourism, invests a lot in the infrastructure of the country. They construct new roads and highways, develop parks, improve public places, and set up airports, etc. With augmenting facilities, more and more tourists are attracted in such countries, thus, there is boosting of the GDP.

Differentiate between:

1.Secondary economic activities and Tertiary economic activities.

SOLUTION

Secondary Economic ActivitiesTertiary Economic Activities
(i) Secondary activities are concerned with activities adding value to already existing products from primary activities.(i) Tertiary activities are concerned with providing services rather than providing material goods.
(ii) Development of secondary activities depends upon the production of resources in primary activities.(ii) Development of tertiary activities depends upon the development of secondary activities.
(iii) Manufacturing and construction are important secondary activities.(iii) Trade, transport communication, banking, insurance, etc., are tertiary activities.
(iv) Secondary activities produce goods and commodities.(iv) Tertiary activities help reach these goods and commodities to the consumers.
(v) Secondary activities may be away from the market and settlement.(v) Tertiary activities are always near the market and settlement.

2.Quaternary and Quinary activities.

SOLUTION

Quaternary ActivitiesQuinary Activities
(i) Quaternary activities refer to those activities where the task is to think, research and develop ideas.(i) Quinary activities involve work related to administration.
(ii) Confined to research, training and education.(ii) Confined to the highest-level decision taking and policy making.
(iii) Software developers, statisticians, hospital staff, teachers, financial planners tax consultants, people working in theatres, etc., comes under quaternary activities.(iii) Senior business executives, government officials, scientists, judges, etc., comes under quinary activities.

3.Waterways and Airways.

SOLUTION

WaterwaysAirways
(i) Development of water transport needs courted area with broken coastlines.(i) Development of airways needs favourable climate, advance technology and plain land for airports.
(ii) This is the cheapest mode of transport.(ii) This is an expensive mode of transport.
(iii) Heavy and bulky goods are transported, e.g., minerals, oil, coal, machinery, etc.(iii) Light, perishable and expensive goods are transported, e.g., electronic goods, gold, silver, fish, dairy products, etc.
(iv) Slow mode of transportation.(iv) Fast mode of transportation.
(v) More used for goods transport than passengers’ transport(v) More used for passengers’ transport than for goods transport.

Answer in detail:

1.Explain the factors affecting trade between two countries.

SOLUTION

Trade refers to transfer of goods or services from one person to another or from one country to another. Factors which affect the trade are natural resources, climate, population, culture, economic cost, specialization, etc.

Natural resources: Distribution of natural resources is uneven. The natural resources available in one country differs from another. Because of this uneven distribution of resource, there is trade between resources surplus and resource deficit.

Climate: Climate mainly affects the plants and animals in a region. In the areas of different climate, there are different types of plants and animals. Example, in the tropical countries like Sri Lanka whose major export is tea or Malaysia and Indonesia, whose major export is rubber. This occurs naturally because of favourable climate for growing tea and rubber plants in these countries.

Population: Population size, distribution and density are different in different countries. This leads to difference in production and consumption and hence trade occurs. Standard of living can also determine the demand for various goods and services. The country with less population depends more on trade because fewer human resources is engaged in production of goods.

Culture: Some countries are known for their specific art and craft, based on their culture, specific production of goods which have worldwide market, for e.g., Kashmiri shawls or Iranian carpets.

Economic Cost: Cost of production is the major factor in the process of production. It is cheaper to import certain goods than producing it in the country itself. For example, it is cheaper to import tea from India and Sri Lanka than producing it in England.

Specialisation: Due extremely favourable factors of production, some countries have specialisation for certain goods and they have name and fame in the world market, so they develop export trade. For example, watches of Switzerland or electronic goods of Japan or tender beef of Argentina.

Government Policy: Government policy about export or import affects trade. For example, Government may increase import duties of some goods, to encourage people to buy domestic goods. Thus, import trade of those goods goes down.

2.Development of transportation is dependent on geographical factors. Explain.

SOLUTION

Various geographical factors affect the development of transport.

  1. Relief, climate and location are the three most important factors that affect the development of transportation.
  2. It is easier to build roadways and railways in plain areas.
  3. Dense forests, hilly and mountainous regions affect the construction of roads and railways, in Africa and South America.
  4. Coastal location with broken coast lines is favourable for development of ports and harbours.
  5. For the development of airways; favourable climate and plain region for construction of airports are essential.
  6. Foggy and smoggy weather and high peaks will be obstacles for the development of air transport. 

3.Why is transportation system important in the development of any nation?

SOLUTION

Transportation plays important role in rapid economic growth of a nation. The introduction of railways has been historically the most important and powerful single factor in the process of economic development of industrial nations of the world like USA, France, Germany, Japan, etc. The significance of transportation in economic activity is found in its effects on both human wants and satisfaction of wants through production and distribution of goods. Transportation increases the quality and variety of consumer goods, thereby stimulating the demand and development of trade and economy of the nation. Transport provides various employment opportunities and boosts up the economy of the country. For example, many people got employment in construction work of Metro rail track.

4.Tertiary activities are expanding day-by-day. Explain the statement.

SOLUTION

Tertiary activities act as the link between primary and secondary activities. These activities are mostly in the form of services. Tertiary activities include transport and communication, trade, loading and unloading of goods, banking, insurance, marketing, export, etc. Providing public services like hospital, education, research and development, administration, etc., are also included in tertiary activities. With increasing industrialisation population growth and trade, number of people working in banking, insurance, tax consultants, software developers, teachers, etc., went on expanding day by day.

1.On an outline map of the world, show the following with the help of suitable index:

  1. A Canal bringing radical change in sea transport.
  2. Railway connecting two continents.
  3. An international airport in India.
  4. An important port in India.

SOLUTION

1.Read the given passage and answer the following questions:

Careful planning and implementation is necessary for economic development of any country. In the tourism sector the need for planned development is of great importance. It involves many industries working together in a complex way and needs special attention. Planning basically tries to allot limited resources between various competitors with a view to maximize output, income and employment and to make sure different sectors have fair growth. Tourism planning is a process through which the set goals can be achieved and the various choices linked to tourism development can be addressed. It is a long term and constant process of preparing, upgrading and improving a destination for tourist. Communities are the basic elements of tourism. It mainly depends upon the level of acceptance shown by local communities. In the process of planning their involvement is essential The development of tourism creates impact on mainly environment, socio-culture and economy of the host community at any destination. These impacts produce both negative as well as positive impacts. Planning is necessary to reduce the negative impact and boost the positive impact for sustainable development of a destination.

  1. Why does the tourism sector need planning?
  2. What is the importance of communities in planning?
  3. Explain any two benefits of planning.
  4. What factors affect the economy of the host community?
  5. Why planning is a long-term task?

SOLUTION

  1. Why does the tourism sector need planning?
    Plan development in the tourist sector is of great importance, since it involves many industries working together in a complex and hence special attention. Planning will help to allot limited resources between various competitors with view to maximise output, income and employment.
  2. What is the importance of communities in planning?
    In the process of planning communities are basic elements of tourism. It mainly depends upon level of acceptance shown by local communities. In the process of planning their involvement is necessary and therefore, community planning is necessary.
  3. Explain any two benefits of planning.
    Planning reduces the negative impact and boosts the positive impact for sustainable development of a destination.
  4. What factors affect the economy of the host community?
    The development of tourism creates impact on mainly environment socio-culture and economy and economy of host community at any destination.
  5. Why planning is a long-term task?
    Planning is a long-term task because planning is a constant process of preparing, upgrading and improving a destination for tourists.

COMPLETED


Balbharathi solution, chapter 6, plant water relation, science, biology, maharashtra board, hsc, full solution, latest edition,

Multiple Choice Question:

1.In soil, water available for absorption by root is ______.

OPTIONS

  • gravitational water
  • capillary water
  • hygroscopic water
  • combined water

2.The most widely accepted theory for ascent of sap is ______.

OPTIONS

  • capillarity theory
  • root pressure theory
  • diffusion
  • transpiration pull theory

3.Water movement between the cells is due to ______.

OPTIONS

  • T.P.
  • W.P.
  • DPD
  • incipient plasmolysiS

4.In guard cells, when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore ______.

OPTIONS

  • closes almost completely
  • opens partially
  • opens fully
  • remains unchanged

5.Surface tension is due to ____________.

OPTIONS

  • diffusion
  • osmosis
  • gravitational force
  • cohesion

6.Which of the following type of solution has a lower level of solutes than the solution?

OPTIONS

  • Isotonic
  • Hypotonic
  • Hypertonic
  • Anisotonic

7.During rainy season wooden doors warp and become difficult to open or to close because of ______

OPTIONS

  • plasmolysis
  • imbibition
  • osmosis
  • diffusion

8.Water absorption takes place through ______.

OPTIONS

  • lateral roots
  • root cap
  • root hair
  • primary root

9.Due to low atmospheric pressure the rate of transpiration will ____________.

OPTIONS

  • increase
  • decrease rapidly
  • decrease slowly
  • remain unaffected

10.Osmosis is a property of ______.

OPTIONS

  • solute
  • solvent
  • solution
  • membrane

Very short answer question.

1.What is osmotic pressure?

Explain the term osmosis.

SOLUTION

i. The pressure exerted due to osmosis is called osmotic pressure.

ii. Osmotic pressure is a pressure of the solution, which is required in opposite direction, so as to stop the entry of solvent molecules into the cell.

OR

Osmotic pressure of a solution is equivalent to the pressure which must be exerted upon it to prevent flow of solvent across a semipermeable membrane.

2.Name the condition in which protoplast of the plant cell shrinks.

SOLUTION

Plasmolysis

3.What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?

SOLUTION 1

The water potential of pure water or a solution increases on the application of pressure values more than atmospheric pressure. For example: when water diffuses into a plant cell, it causes pressure to build up against the cell wall. This makes the cell wall turgid. This pressure is termed as pressure potential and has a positive value.

SOLUTION 2

If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential increases. It is equivalent to pumping water from one place to another. Pressure can build up in a plant system when water enters a plant cell due to diffusion causing a pressure built up against the cell wall, it makes the cell turgid.

4.Which type of solution will bring about deplasmolysis?

SOLUTION

Hypotonic solution can bring about deplasmolysis.

5.Which type of plants have negative root pressure?

SOLUTION

The plants in which transpiration occurs rapidly especially during midsummer shows negative root pressure.

6.In which conditions transpiration pull will be affected?

SOLUTION

For transpiration pull to operate, the water column should be unbroken and continuous. However, due to temperature fluctuations during day and night, gas bubbles may enter in water column breaking the continuity.

7.Mention the shape of guard cells in Cyperus.

SOLUTION

In Cyperus, both kidney-shaped and dumbbell-shaped guard cells are present.

8.Why do diurnal changes occur in osmotic potential of guard cells?

SOLUTION

1. According to Steward, diurnal changes occur in the osmotic potential of guard cells due to starch-sugar inter-conversion.

2. Whereas according to Levitt active transport of potassium ions into the guard cells and out of them causes diurnal changes in the osmotic potential of guard cells.

3. Endo-osmosis and exo-osmosis occur due to diurnal changes in osmotic potential of guard cells.

9.What is the symplast pathway?

SOLUTION

When water passes across from one living cell to another living cell through plasmodesmata, then it is called the symplast pathway. It is also called the trans-membrane pathway.


Answer the following question.

1.Describe the mechanism for absorption of water.

SOLUTION

A mechanism for absorption of water:

1. In plants, water is absorbed mainly by two processes: Passive absorption and Active absorption

2. Passive absorption:

a. About 98% of the total water absorbed in plants occurs passively.

b. In passive absorption, living cells of the root do not play an important role in water absorption.

c. The driving force is transpiration pull and it thus proceeds through the DPD gradient.

d. There is no expenditure of energy (ATP) as water moves in accordance with the concentration gradient. Hence, it is passive absorption.

e. Passive absorption occurs during day time when transpiration is in progress. It stops at night when transpiration stops.

f. Rapid transpiration creates tension in the xylem vessel due to negative water potential. This tension is transmitted to xylem in the roots. Consequently, water is pulled upwards passively.

g. During passive absorption, no ATP is utilized. Thus, the rate of respiration is not affected.

3. Active absorption:

a. In this water is absorbed due to the activity of roots.

b. Root cells play an active role in the absorption of water.

c. The driving force is the root pressure developed, in the living cells of the root.

d. Active absorption occurs usually at night when transpiration stops due to closure of stomata.

e. As water absorption is against the DPD gradient, there is an expenditure of ATP (energy) generated through the respiratory activity of cells.

2.Discuss theories of water translocation.

SOLUTION

Theories of water translocation:

i. Various theories have been put forth to explain the mechanism of translocation of water. These theories include Vital force theory, Relay pump theory, Physical force theory, Root pressure theory, etc.

ii. Root Pressure Theory (Vital Theory): This theory was proposed by J. Priestley. According to this theory, the activity of living cells of the root is responsible for the translocation of water.

iii. Capillarity theory (physical force theory): This theory was put forth by Boehm in (1863). According to this theory, physical forces and dead cells are responsible for the ascent of sap.

iv. Cohesion- tension theory (Transpiration pull theory): This theory was put forth by Dixon and Jolly (1894). This is presently a widely accepted theory explaining the ascent of sap in plants. This theory is based on two principles i.e. Cohesion and adhesion, and transpiration pull.

3.What is transpiration?

SOLUTION

Transpiration:

The loss of water in the form of vapor is called transpiration that occurs through leaves, stem, flowers, and fruits. 

4.Describe the mechanism of opening and closing of stomata.

SOLUTION

Mechanism of opening and closing of stomata:

1. The opening and closing of stoma is controlled by turgor of guard cells.

2. During day time, guard cells become turgid due to endo-osmosis.

3. Thus turgor pressure is exerted on the thin walls of guard cells.

4. Being elastic and thin, lateral walls are stretched out.

5. Due to kidney or dumb-bell like shape, inner thick walls are pulled apart to open (widen) the stoma.

6. During night time, guard cells become flaccid due to exo-osmosis.

7. Flaccidity closes the stoma almost completely.

8. Endo-osmosis and exo-osmosis occur due to diurnal changes in the osmotic potential of guard cells.

9. According to starch-sugar inter-conversion theory (Steward 1964), during day time, enzyme phosphorylase converts starch to sugar, thus increasing the osmotic potential of guard cells causing entry of water, thereby guard cells are stretched and stoma widens. The reverse reaction occurs at night bringing about the closure of the stoma.

Starch(Stomata open)⇌(Night)Phosphorylase (Day)Sugar(Stomata close)

10. According to the theory of proton transport (Levitt-1974), stomatal movement occurs due to the transport of protons H+ and K+ ions. During the daytime, starch is converted into malic acid. Malic acid dissociates to form malate ions and protons. Protons are transported to subsidiary cells and K+ ions are imported from them.

Potassium Malate is formed that increases osmolarity and causes endoosmosis. Uptake of K+ ions is always accompanied by Cl ions. At night, uptake of K+ and Cl ions is prevented by abscisic acid, changing the permeability of guard cells. Due to this guard cells become hypotonic and thereby become flaccid.

5.What is transpiration?

SOLUTION

Transpiration:

The loss of water in the form of vapor is called transpiration that occurs through leaves, stem, flowers, and fruits. 

6.Explain the role of transpiration.

SOLUTION

Role of transpiration:

i. It removes excess of water.

ii. It helps in the passive absorption of water and minerals from the soil.

iii. It helps in the ascent of sap.

iv. As stomata are open, gaseous exchange required for photosynthesis and respiration is facilitated.

v. It maintains the turgor of the cells.

vi. Transpiration helps in reducing the temperature of leaf and in imparting a cooling effect.

7.What is the significance of transpiration?

SOLUTION

Significance of transpiration:

1. It removes excess of water.

2. It helps in the passive absorption of water and minerals from the soil.

3. It helps in the ascent of sap.

4. As stomata are open, gaseous exchange required for photosynthesis and respiration is facilitated.

5. It maintains the turgor of the cells.

6. Transpiration helps in reducing the temperature of leaf and in imparting a cooling effect.

8.Explain the root pressure theory and its limitations.

SOLUTION

Root pressure theory (Vital theory):

1. This theory was proposed by J. Priestley.

2. According to this theory, the activity of living cells of root is responsible for the translocation of water.

3. When a stem of a potted plant is cut few inches above the soil by a sharp knife, xylem sap is seen flowing out/ oozing out through the cut end.

4. This exudation at the cut end of the stem is a good proof for the existence of root pressure.

5. As water absorption by roots is a constant and continuous process, hydrostatic pressure is developed in the living cells of cortex of the root. This is termed as root pressure (coined by S. Hales).

6. It is due to root pressure water along with dissolved minerals is not only forced into xylem but it is also conducted upwards against the gravity.

7. Root pressure seems to be largely an osmotic phenomenon and its development is an active process.

8. The value of root pressure is +1 to +2 bars which is enough to pump water to a height of 10 to 20 meters.

9. The factors like oxygen, moisture, the temperature of the soil, salt contents, etc. influence the root pressure.

Limitations of root pressure theory:

Although ascent of sap takes place due to root pressure, there are certain objections raised, such as;

1. It is not applicable to plants taller than 20 meters.

2. Ascent of sap can also occur even in the absence of a root system.

3. Root pressure value is almost nearly zero in taller gymnosperm trees.

4. In actively transpiring plants, no root pressure is developed.

5. Xylem sap under normal condition is under tension i.e. it shows negative hydrostatic pressure or high osmotic pressure.

Thus, root pressure is not the sole mechanism explaining the ascent of sap in all plants of varying heights.

9.Explain capillarity theory of water translocation.

SOLUTION

Capillarity theory of water translocation:

1. This theory was put forth by Boehm in (1863).

2. According to this theory, physical forces and dead cells are responsible for the ascent of sap. For e.g. Wick dipped in an oil lamp, shows capillarity due to which oil is raised upwards. The conduction of water in a straw dipped in water is raised to a certain height because of capillarity. The height to which water is raised depends on the diameter of the straw.

3. Capillarity is because of surface tension, and forces of cohesion (attraction between like molecules) and adhesion (attraction between unlike molecules).

4. Xylem vessel/ tracheid with its lumen can be compared with straw.

5. Water column exists because of combined cohesive and adhesive forces of water and xylem wall, due to capillarity.

6. Due to capillarity, water is raised or conducted upwards against gravity, to few centimeters only.

10.Why is transpiration is called ‘a necessary evil’?

SOLUTION

Curtis (1926) regarded transpiration as ‘a necessary evil’, because;

1. For stomatal transpiration to occur, stoma must remain open, during day time.

2. When stomata are open then only the gaseous exchange needed for respiration and photosynthesis will take place.

3. If stomatal transpiration stops, it will directly affect the productivity of the plant through the loss of photosynthetic and respiratory activity.

4. Hence for productivity, stomata must remain open.

5. Consequently transpiration cannot be avoided.

11.Explain the movement of water in the root.

SOLUTION

Journey of water from soil to xylem in roots (from epiblema upto xylem in the stelar region):

1. Water is absorbed by root hair cells through processes like imbibition, diffusion, osmosis which occur sequentially.

2. Water passes through the epidermal cell (epiblema), cortex, endodermis, Casparian strip, pericycle, and then to protoxylem.

3. When the root hair cell absorbs water it becomes turgid. Its turgor pressure increases, but its DPD value decreases.

4. However, the immediately adjacent cortical cell inner to it, has more DPD value, because its O. P. is more.

5. Therefore, cortical cells will absorb water from the turgid root hair cell. It then becomes turgid.

6. The flaccid root hair cell now absorbs water from the soil.

7. Water from the turgid cortical cell is absorbed by the inner cortical cell and the process goes on.

8. Thus, a gradient of suction pressure (DPD) is developed from cells of epiblema to the cortex of the root.

9. Consequently water moves rapidly across the root through loosely arranged living cells of cortex, followed by passage cells of endodermis and finally into the cell of pericycle.

10. Protoxylem is in close proximity to the pericycle.

11. It is due to root pressure, water from pericycle is forced into the xylem.

12. Pathway of water across the root occurs in two types: Apoplast pathway and Symplast pathway

13. Apoplast pathway: When some amount of water passes across the root through the cell wall and the intercellular spaces of cortical cells of the root, it is then called the apoplast pathway. This pathway occurs up to endodermis.

14. Symplast pathway: When water passes across from one living cell to another living cell through plasmodesmata, then it is called the symplast pathway. It is also called the trans-membrane pathway.


Very short answer question.

12.What is osmotic pressure?

Explain the term osmosis.

SOLUTION

i. The pressure exerted due to osmosis is called osmotic pressure.

ii. Osmotic pressure is a pressure of the solution, which is required in opposite direction, so as to stop the entry of solvent molecules into the cell.

OR

Osmotic pressure of a solution is equivalent to the pressure which must be exerted upon it to prevent flow of solvent across a semipermeable membrane.

13.Define and or explain the term:

Diffusion

SOLUTION

  1. Diffusion means to disperse.
  2. Diffusion can be defined as the movement of ions/ atoms/ molecules of a substance from the region of their higher concentration to the region of their lower concentration till equilibrium is reached.
  3. The movement is due to the kinetic energy of the molecules.
  4. Water passes into the cell by diffusion through a freely permeable cell wall.

Define and or explain the term:

14.Plasmolysis

SOLUTION 1

Plasmolysis – The shrinkage of cytoplasm of a living cell as a result of exosmosis is known as plasmolysis.

SOLUTION 2

  1. When a living cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, exo-osmosis occurs. This is called plasmolysis.
  2. During plasmolysis, the protoplast of the cell shrinks and recedes from the cell wall due to which cell becomes flaccid. Such a cell is called a plasmolysed cell.
  3. In a plasmolyzed cell, a gap is developed between the cell wall and the protoplast. This gap is filled up by the outer solution.

15.imbibition

SOLUTION

1. Imbibition is swelling up of hydrophilic colloids due to the adsorption of water.

OR

The adsorption of water by hydrophilic compounds is called imbibition.

2. Substance that adsorbs water/liquid is called imbibant and water/ liquid that gets imbibed is called imbibate.

3. The root hair cell wall is made up of pectic compounds and cellulose which are hydrophilic colloids.

4. During imbibition, water molecules get tightly adsorbed without the formation of a solution.

5. Imbibition continues until the equilibrium is reached. In other words, water moves along the concentration gradient.

6. Imbibition is significant in soaking of seeds, swelling up of dried raisins, kneading of flour etc.

16.Guttation

SOLUTION

  1. The loss of water in the form of liquid is called guttation.
  2. It occurs through special structures called water stomata or hydathodes.

17.Transpiration

SOLUTION

i. The loss of water in the form of vapour is called transpiration that occurs through leaves, stem, flowers and fruits.

ii. Transpiration occurs through three main sites – cuticle, stomata, and lenticels.

Define and or explain the term:

18.Ascent of sap

SOLUTION

The transport of water with dissolved minerals from the root to other aerial parts like stem and leaves, against the gravity, is called translocation or ascent of sap.

19.Active absorption

SOLUTION

  1. In this water is absorbed due to the activity of roots.
  2. Root cells play an active role in the absorption of water.
  3. The driving force is the root pressure developed, in the living cells of the root.
  4. Active absorption occurs usually at night when transpiration stops due to the closure of stomata.
  5. As water absorption is against the DPD gradient, there is an expenditure of ATP (energy) generated through the respiratory activity of cells.

Answer the following question.

1.Define and or explain the term:

DPD

SOLUTION

  1. Diffusion pressure of pure solvent (pure water) is always more than the diffusion pressure of the solvent in a solution. The difference in the diffusion pressures of pure solvent and the solvent in a solution is called Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD) or Suction Pressure (SP).
  2. The term DPD was coined by B.S. Meyer (1938). Nowadays, term water potential is used for DPD.
  3. In colloquial language, the term DPD is actually the thirst of a cell with which it absorbs water from the surroundings.
  4. The water around the cell wall has more diffusion pressure than cell sap. Due to this, water moves in the cell by diffusion. 

2.Define and or explain the term:

Turgor pressure

SOLUTION

Turgor pressure (T.P) is the pressure exerted by turgid cell sap on to the cell membrane and cell wall.

3.Define and or explain the term:

Water potential

SOLUTION

i. Chemical potential of water is called water potential.

ii. It is represented by Greek letter psi (ψ).

iii. The unit of measurement of water potential is bars/ pascals/ atmospheres.

iv. Water potential of protoplasm is equal but opposite in sign to DPD. It has a negative value.

v. Water potential of pure water is always zero. The addition of any solute in it decreases its psi (ψ) value. Therefore, it has a negative value.

vi. Difference between water potential of the adjacent cells decides the movement of water through plasmodesmata across the cells.

vii. Water always flows from less negative potential to more negative water potential (i.e. from high water potential area to low water potential area).

4.Define and or explain the term:

Wall pressure

SOLUTION

The cell wall is thick and rigid, exerts a counter pressure on the cell sap. This is called Wall pressure (W. P).

5.Define and or explain the term:

Root pressure

SOLUTION

  1. During the absorption of water, the continuous flow of water develops hydrostatic pressure in living cells of the root. This is called root pressure.
  2. Root pressure causes water to flow from pericycle into the xylem. It also causes upward conduction of water against gravity.
  3. A manometer is used to measure the root pressure.

6.Distinguish between Osmotic pressure and Turgor pressure.

SOLUTION

Osmotic pressureTurgor pressure
Osmotic pressure is a pressure of the solution, which is required in opposite direction, so as to stop the entry of solvent molecules into the cell.Turgor pressure is the pressure exerted by turgid cell sap on to the cell membrane and cell wall.

7.Distinguish between Diffusion and Osmosis

SOLUTION

DiffusionOsmosis
1. It takes place in solid, gas, or liquid medium.1. It takes place only in a liquid medium.
2. It does not require the presence of a semi-permeable membrane.2. It requires the presence of a semipermeable membrane.
3. In diffusion, the movement of ions/atoms/molecules from a region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration takes place.3. In osmosis, diffusion of the only solvent from a lower concentration of solution to a higher concentration of solution occurs
4. It is influenced by the diffusion pressure4. It is only influenced by the turgor pressure.

8.Enlist macronutrients and micronutrients required for plant growth.

Long answer question.

Write on macro- and micro nutrients required for plant growth.

SOLUTION

  1. Macronutrients:
    Some minerals like C, H, O, P, N, S, Mg, K, Ca required in large quantity for normal growth of the plant, are called macro elements. Macronutrients are required in large quantities. They mainly play nutritive and structural roles.
  2. Micronutrients:
    Some minerals like Cu, Mo, Mn, Cl, Bo, Zn required in small quantities for the growth of a plant, are called microelements.
    Micronutrients are required in traces because they function in the catalytic role as co-factors.

9.How are the minerals absorbed by the plants?

SOLUTION

i. The analysis of plant ash demonstrates that minerals are absorbed by plants from soil and surroundings.

ii. Minerals are absorbed by plants in the ionic (dissolved) form, mainly through roots and then transported.

iii. Mineral ion absorption is independent of water absorption.

iv. It can occur in two ways i.e. active and passive absorption.

v. In passive absorption, the movement of mineral ions into root cells occurs as a result of diffusion. Mineral ions diffuse from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration without the expenditure of energy.

vi. Most minerals in the soil are charged particles hence, they cannot pass across the cell membranes. Hence most of the minerals are absorbed actively with the expenditure energy.

vii. Inactive absorption, minerals are absorbed against the concentration gradient with the expenditure energy.

viii. Absorbed mineral ions are pulled in an upward direction along with xylem sap because of transpiration pull.

ix. Hence, mineral ions are pulled from the source (root) and are transported ascendingly through the sap to the needed areas like apical, lateral, young leaves, developing flowers, fruits, seeds, and storage organs.

x. Mineral ions get unloaded by fine veins through the process of diffusion in the vicinity of cells. Cells uptake them actively.

Long answer question.

1.Describe structure of root hair.

SOLUTION

1. Root hair is a cytoplasmic extension (prolongation) of epiblema cell.

2. Each root hair may be approximately 1 to 10 mm long and tube-like structure.

3. It is colourless, unbranched, short-lived (ephemeral), and very delicate.

4. It has a large central vacuole surrounded by a thin film of cytoplasm, plasma membrane and thin cell wall, which is two-layered.

5. Outer layer is composed of pectin and the inner layer is made up of cellulose.

6. Cell wall of a root hair is freely permeable but the plasma membrane is selectively permeable.

2.Write on journey of water from soil to xylem in roots.

SOLUTION

1. Water is absorbed by root hair cells through processes like imbibition, diffusion, osmosis which occur sequentially.

2. Water passes through the epidermal cell (epiblema), cortex, endodermis, casparian strip, pericycle and then to protoxylem.

3. When root hair cell absorbs water it becomes turgid. Its turgor pressure increases, but its DPD value decreases.

4. However, the immediately adjacent cortical cell inner to it, has more DPD value because its O. P. is more.

5. Therefore, the cortical cells will absorb water from the turgid root hair cell. It then becomes turgid.

6. The flaccid root hair cell now absorbs water from the soil.

7. Water from the turgid cortical cell is absorbed by the inner cortical cell and the process goes on.

8. Thus, a gradient of suction pressure (DPD) is developed from cells of epiblema to the cortex of the root.

9. Consequently water moves rapidly across the root through loosely arranged living cells of cortex, followed by passage cells of endodermis and finally into the cell of pericycle.

10. Protoxylem is in close proximity with pericycle.

11. It is due to root pressure, water from pericycle is forced into the xylem.

12. Pathway of water across the root occurs in two types: Apoplast pathway and Symplast pathway

13. Apoplast pathway: When some amount of water passes across the root through the cell wall and the intercellular spaces of cortical cells of the root, it is then called the apoplast pathway. This pathway occurs up to endodermis.

14. Symplast pathway: When water passes across from one living cell to another living cell through plasmodesmata, then it is called the symplast pathway. It is also called the trans-membrane pathway.

3.Explain cohesion theory for translocation of water.

SOLUTION

1. This theory was put forth by Dixon and Jolly (1894).

2. This is presently a widely accepted theory explaining the ascent of sap in plants.

3. This theory is based on two principles i.e. Cohesion and adhesion, and transpiration pull.

4. Cohesion and adhesion:

a. A strong force of attraction between water molecules is called cohesive force.

b. While a strong force of attraction between water molecules and the lignified wall of the lumen of the xylem vessel, is called adhesive force.

c. Due to combined cohesive and adhesive forces a continuous water column is developed (formed) in the xylem right from root up to the tip of the topmost leaf in the plant.

5. Transpiration pull:

a. The transpiration pull developed in the leaf vessel is transmitted down to the root and thus accounts for the ascent of sap.

b. Excess water is lost in the form of vapour, mainly through the stomata found on a leaf.

c. This water loss increases the D.P.D. of mesophyll cells. These cells withdraw water ultimately from the xylem in the leaf.

d. In other words, due to continuous transpiration, a gradient of suction pressure (i.e. D.P.D.) is developed right from guard cells up to the xylem in the leaf. This will create a tension (called a negative pull or transpiration pull) in the xylem.

e. Consequently, the water column is pulled out of xylem. Thus, water is pulled upwards passively against the gravity leading to the ascent of sap.

4.Write mechanism of opening and closing of stoma.

SOLUTION

1. Opening and closing of stoma is controlled by the turgor of guard cells.

2. During day time, guard cells become turgid due to endo-osmosis.

3. Thus turgor pressure is exerted on the thin walls of guard cells.

4. Being elastic and thin, lateral walls are stretched out.

5. Due to kidney or dumb-bell like shape, inner thick walls are pulled apart to open (widen) the stoma.

6. During night time, guard cells become flaccid due to exo-osmosis.

7. Flaccidity closes the stoma almost completely.

8. Endo-osmosis and exo-osmosis occur due to diurnal changes in the osmotic potential of guard cells.

9. According to starch-sugar inter-conversion theory (Steward 1964), during day time, enzyme phosphorylase converts starch to sugar, thus increasing the osmotic potential of guard cells causing entry of water, thereby guard cells are stretched and stoma widens. The reverse reaction occurs at night bringing about the closure of the stoma.

Starch(Stomata open)⇌(Night)Phosphorylase (Day)Sugar(Stomata close)

10. According to the theory of proton transport (Levitt-1974), stomatal movement occurs due to the transport of protons H+ and K+ ions. During the daytime, starch is converted into malic acid. Malic acid dissociates to form malate ions and protons. Protons are transported to subsidiary cells and K+ ions are imported from them. Potassium Malate is formed that increases osmolarity and causes endosmosis. The uptake of K+ ions is always accompanied by Cl ions. At night, uptake of K+ and Cl– ions is prevented by abscisic acid, changing the permeability of guard cells. Due to this guard cells become hypotonic and thereby become flaccid.

5.What is hydroponics? How is it useful in identifying the role of nutrients?

SOLUTION

  1. Hydroponics is a technique in which plants are grown in nutrient solutions in absence of soil. Roots are immersed in an adequately aerated, dilute, and defined solution of nutrients. Purified water and mineral salts are used in the nutrient medium.
  2. In hydroponics, the concentration of a particular mineral in a solution of nutrients in which roots are immersed can be increased or decreased. By this method, essential elements can be identified and their deficiency symptoms can be discovered.
    Thus it helps to identify the role of nutrients in plant growth.

6.Explain the active absorption of minerals.

SOLUTION

1. Uptake of mineral ions against the concentration gradient is called active absorption.

2. Such movement requires an expenditure of energy by the absorbing cell. This energy is derived from respiration and is supplied through ATP.

3. The rate of active absorption of minerals depends upon respiration.

4. When the roots are deprived of oxygen, they show a sudden drop in the active absorption of minerals. The mineral ions accumulated in the root hair pass into the cortex and finally reach the xylem.

5. The minerals in the xylem are then carried along with water to other parts of the plant along the transpiration stream and are subsequently assimilated into organic molecules and then redistributed to other parts of the plant through the phloem.

7.Enlist macronutrients and micronutrients required for plant growth.

Long answer question.

Write on macro- and micro nutrients required for plant growth.

SOLUTION

  1. Macronutrients:
    Some minerals like C, H, O, P, N, S, Mg, K, Ca required in large quantity for normal growth of the plant, are called macro elements. Macronutrients are required in large quantities. They mainly play nutritive and structural roles.
  2. Micronutrients:
    Some minerals like Cu, Mo, Mn, Cl, Bo, Zn required in small quantities for the growth of a plant, are called microelements.
    Micronutrients are required in traces because they function in the catalytic role as co-factors.

                  COMPLETED


Chapter 6, into the wild, english, prpse, hsc,12th std, maharashtra board, ebhalbharathi, new edition, 1.6,

Chapter 1. Into the Wild

1.Narrate in your class any of the incidents of your life when you were extremely terrified or awestruck.

SOLUTION

I used to reside in the town of Mahad for a few years of my childhood. I was in 6th standard when this terrifying incident took place. The nearby Savitri River was flooded due to incessant rains and floodwater had entered into our town. By sunset that evening, the water level was at the 1 st floor of my building where my flat was on the 2nd floor. It was turning dark and the water level was threatening to rise even further. We were hoping that the water does not enter our homes. Fortunately by midnight the water started to recede and our home was saved. The floods of that year had wreaked havoc in the town of Mahad. For me the entire experience was an unsettling one as if it were a bad dream.

2.Complete the given table regarding the factors/situations/reasons – why you sometimes get scared and the factors that add to it. Give possible solutions.

ReasonsFactors which add to itSolutions
While discussing about strange creaturesAt midnight/In the absence of parentsAvoid such discussions/ stories as they are baseless
   
   

SOLUTION

ReasonsFactors which add to itSolutions
While discussing about strange creaturesAt midnight/In the absence of parentsAvoid such discussions/ stories as they are baseless
The thought of drowning in water.While travelling in a ferry/boat in turbulent seasLearn swimming under correct supervision
Travelling aloneAt nightAvoid secluded areas/Always keep someone informed of your whereabouts

3.Given below are various activities which your can pursue as your hobby, passion, or profession. Complete the table accordingly.

Sr.noActivitiesHobbyPassionProfessionReason/Challenge/Both
1.Painting(R) I can express myself well through the strokes of brush
2.Travelling(R) In tourism, there is great demand for professional tourist
3.Wild life photography   (C) In the age of computers limited professional scope
4.Conserving environment    
5.Bird watching    

SOLUTION

Sr.noActivitiesHobby9ProfessionReason/Challenge/Both
1.Painting(R) I can express myself well through the strokes of brush
2.Travelling(R) In tourism, there is great demand for professional tourist
3.Wild life photography(C) In the age of computers limited professional scope
4.Conserving environment(R) Conserving environment is the need of the hour when climate change is critically affecting our planet
5.Bird watching×(R) Birdwatching is a soothing and satisfying activity(C) Some of the unique species of birds are found only in dense and untrodden forests

4.Match the following ‘Wild-Life Sanctuaries’ with their locations.

Wild life sanctuary Location
1. Bandipur National Park(a) Uttarakhand
2. Kaziranga National Park(b) Madhya Pradesh
3. Jim Corbet National Park(c) Karnataka
4. Ranthambore National Park(d) Assam
5. Kanha National Park(e) Rajasthan

SOLUTION

Wild life sanctuary Location
1. Bandipur National Park(c) Karnataka
2. Kaziranga National Park(d) Assam
3. Jim Corbet National Park(a) Uttarakhand
4. Ranthambore National Park(e) Rajasthan
5. Kanha National Park(b) Madhya Pradesh

1.In pairs, discuss the professions and challenges one can take happily if one is really passionate about the job.

SOLUTION

Do it yourself.


2.In groups, organise a role-play activity associated with ‘Wild Life Expert’/ ‘Wild Life Photographer’/‘Wild Life Conservator’, explaining the differences and similarities involved in their profession.

SOLUTION

The characters in the role-play activity can take the help of the following pointers to interact amongst themselves.

What is the nature of their jobs?

Why did they choose their respective professions?

What is the most satisfying thing about their profession?

How can they contribute to each other in their professions?

What are the risks involved in their respective professions?

Which persons/organizations do they often come in contact with?

4.Arrange the following incidents in proper sequential order as they have occurred in Part-I:

(a) Writer realized that he was lost in the woods.

(b) The Langurs saw the leopard.

(c) The author was moving from the jungle as quietly as possible, finding his way through the thicket.

(d) The author met a villager.

SOLUTION

The following incidents in proper sequential order as they have occurred in Part-I are:

(a) The author was moving from the jungle as quietly as possible, finding his way through the thicket.

(b) The Langurs saw the leopard.

(c) The author met a villager.

(d) Writer realized that he was lost in the woods

Correct the false statement.

1.Earlier Shaaz was in the field of finance.

SOLUTION

Shaaz chose career dedicated to wildlife over that in finance.

2.BCRTI was founded out of the genuine urge to conserve the habitat of the wild life.

SOLUTION

BCRTI was founded out of the genuine urge to educate the villagers who live on the fringe of the forest on the importance of wildlife conservation.

3.Shaaz failed to utilize the finance incurred out of tourism.

SOLUTION

Shaaz has been successful in putting the finance incurred out of tourism to good use.

4.According to the local agriculturist seeing is more essential than listening.

SOLUTION

According to the local agriculturist listening is more essential than seeing.

1.Complete the given web.

SOLUTION

Signs of the vicinity of the village:

  • droppings of the blue bulls nearby
  • sight of lantern of Rajiram Bhalavi’s farm and loudspeakers installed for Keshav Bhalavi’s marriage.
  • sounds of people talking on the loudspeaker.
  • spotting the village lake and the familiar ‘Suihudaki’ hillock.

2.Complete the following.

SOLUTION

Following are the responsibilities handled by Shaaz:

1. Shaaz created BRCTI to educate villagers who live on fringe of the forest on the importance of conservation.

2. Shaaz ensures that the tourist currency is put to good use, under the BRCTI umbrella.

3. Shaaz provides locals with vocational training so that they can benefit from the tourist currency.

4. Shaaz enables locals to acquire skills from the visitors to his resort.

3.Complete the flow-chart stating the reactions of the petrified Langurs due to the presence of the leopard.

SOLUTION

4.Complete the web, describing each step taken by the writer as a solitary traveller while moving in the jungle with great precaution:

SOLUTION

5.Complete the table explaining the qualities that you would like to imbibe from Nature within yourself and provide the reasons for the same:

FromQualityReasons
Trees  
Streams  

SOLUTION

TreesThe quality of selfless serviceTrees often give back more to the environment than they take from it. They do so without expecting anything in return. I would like to imbibe such selfless character of the tree
The quality of shedding leaves annuallyI would like to imbibe the quality of trees of giving up anything that does not serve any purpose and thereby not holding on to the past
StreamsThe quality to change course if requiredI would like to be flexible like a stream and adapt to any situation. I should be able to explore other options than giving up on an obstacle.
The quality to selfpurify from contamination during its own course.Similar to a stream, I would like to analyse my mistakes and correct them on my own through the course of my life.

Choose appropriate phrases/expressions from the extract given in the options and fill in the blank appropriately. 

1.I was on diet for some days but today I am going to eat _______.

Options
  • time and again
  • to my heart’s content
  • frantic speed
  • in a jiffy

2.Every mother scolds her children _______ for the overuse of the mobile phone.

Options
  • time and again
  • to my heart’s content
  • frantic speed
  • in a jiffy

3.All their educational problems were sorted out _______ because of the funds given by an NGO.

Options
  • time and again
  • to my heart’s content
  • in a jiffy
  • frantic speed

4.Raj ran at a _______ to catch the train.

Options
  • time and again
  • to my heart’s content
  • in a jiffy
  • frantic speed

1.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

I can guide visitors.   (Visitors)

SOLUTION

Visitors can be guided by me.

2.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Animals are paying me back.  (I)

SOLUTION

I am being paid back by the animals.

3.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

The behaviour of the Black Panther is being documented. (They)

SOLUTION

They are documenting the behaviour of the Black Panther.

4.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

All the research on the animal has been done through camera traps.  (They)

SOLUTION

They have done all the research on the animal through camera traps.

5.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Madegowda is employed by The Bison.  (The Bison)

SOLUTION

The Bison has employed Madegowda.

6.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

The surroundings were reminding me.  (I)

SOLUTION

I was being reminded by the surroundings.

7.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Raju was amazed at my solitary visits to Umbarzara. (My solitary)

SOLUTION

My solitary visits to Umbarzara amazed Raju.

8.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

I found a bright red soil trail. (A)

SOLUTION

A bright red soil trail was founded by me.

9.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Older leopards like Pardus carry away livestock from villages. (Livestock)

SOLUTION

Livestock from villages is carried away by older leopards like Pardus.

10.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

I have lost almost 80 percent of a season’s yield of sugarcane. (80 percent)

SOLUTION

80 percent of a season’s yield of sugarcane has been lost by me.

11.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Tracking an animal also teaches you life lessons.   (Life lessons)

SOLUTION

Life lessons are also taught by tracking an animal.

12.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Many things have been taught to me by the forests.  (The forests)

SOLUTION

The forests have taught me many things.

13.Begin the following sentence with the word given in the bracket.

Resentment among locals towards the animals is created by this. (This)

SOLUTION

This creates resentment among locals towards the animals.

1.Rewrite the sentence by using ‘not only ….. but also’:

The petrified Langurs speeded to the trees near and far and secured their places on the tree tops.

SOLUTION

The petrified Langurs not only speeded to the trees near and far but also secured their places on the tree tops

2.Rewrite the sentence by using ‘not only ….. but also’:

Umbarzara is the haven for Tigers, Leopards and Sloth Bears.

SOLUTION

Umbarzara is the haven not only for Tigers and Leopards but also for Sloth Bears.

3.Rewrite the sentence by using ‘not only ….. but also’:

I crossed the cement pillar and stones stacked by the Forest Development Corporation.

SOLUTION

I crossed not only the cement pillar but also the stones stacked by the Forest Development Corporation.

1.Your college has decided to celebrate the World Environment Day. Mr Kiran Purandare has been invited as the ‘Chief Guest’ for the event. Imagine you are the Secretary of the ‘Nature Club’ of your college and you have to conduct an interview of Mr Kiran Purandare. Frame 8/10 questions for the same.

SOLUTION

Below is the list of questions I would ask Mr. Kiran Purandare in an interview.

i. What inspired you to become a wildlife activist?

ii. What are the problems that you face as an environmentalist?

iii. Can you narrate a few memorable incidents from your days in Nagzira?

iv. What is the biggest lesson that you have learned from nature?

v. What do you consider as your greatest achievement to date?

vi. How big a role can social media play in wildlife conservation?

vii. What is the biggest threat to wildlife today?

viii. Do you think the government is taking enough measures to conserve wildlife habitat? If not, what can it do differently?

ix. What is the vision and mission of Nisarg Wedh Organisation that you have founded?

x. What message would you like to give to students like us?

2.Imagine you have visited the jungles of Nagarhole. Write a report, to be published in your college magazine / in a local newspaper.

SOLUTION

Jungles of Nagarhole

11th January 2020                         

Komal Mehta

                               (Student Reporter)

     As a part of their annual study tour, students of SYJC, Science, Division I, visited the Nagarhole National park of Karnataka, also known as the Rajiv Gandhi National Park. The three-day visit that started on 1th January was supervised by Sawant Sir of Physics department and accompanied by the support staff. 71 students from the division had enrolled for the tour and were accommodated in ‘the Bison’ resort situated within the wildlife reserve. On day one, the students attended a workshop on wildlife of Nagarhole that was conducted by the Head Warden of the National Park. The students were also briefed about the precautions to be taken during their safari on the following day.

     On the second day of the visit, students were divided into 4 groups to proceed for Jungle safari, each group headed by a local tour guide. They were successful in spotting big cats as well as other wild animals. Students were asked to take photographs and note their observations of the wildlife of Nagarhole. Day three of the tour was solely allotted to fun and recreational activities. Upon returning every student was expected to prepare a presentation about their visit.

      Students learnt a great deal about the rich wildlife reserve of our country and returned with a pledge to sincerely devote to the cause of its conservation. All in all, the visit to the jungles of Nagarhole was a huge success.

3.Shaaz has contributed towards conserving the wild animals and their habitat. Your college has decided to spread the message in society and arrange a rally. Prepare an ‘Appeal’ to ensure maximum participation informing about the day, date, and other relevant details.

SOLUTION

 WILDLIFE CALLING!

Wildlife is mother nature’s greatest treasure. Together we can and we should save it from becoming history.

We, at Shree Dayanand College of Commerce, have arranged a rally to create awareness for wildlife conservation.

The rally shall be flagged off by none other than our beloved, Shaaz Jung!

Come one, come all!

Let us make this initiative a huge success

Time and date: 9.00 am, 15th August 2020

Rally start point: Dayanand Trust Gymkhana

Rally end point: Amphitheatre, Shree Dayanand College of Commerce

4.Nature is a great teacher and a guide. Complete the mind map as instructed as per the titled concept:

SOLUTIO

1.Surf the net and obtain more information about the conservation work done by Shaaz. Prepare posters to inspire others and display them on your college noticeboard.

SOLUTION

Do it yourself.


1.Find out the information about the qualification and eligibility required in the profession related to wild life such as:

Forest officer / Ranger

SOLUTION

To become a forest officer/ ranger, one needs to have a bachelor’s degree in engineering, medical or science, preferably in forestry or agriculture. In India, it is mandatory for the candidates to clear the relevant Civil Services Examination for the post of Forest Officer.

2.Find out the information about the qualification and eligibility required in the profession related to wild life such as:

Wildlife photographer

SOLUTION

To become a wildlife photographer one needs to clear the 10+2 equivalent examination and pursue a diploma/certificate course in wildlife photography. A person having a degree in photography along with relevant field experience can also aspire to become a wildlife photographer.

3.Find out the information about the qualification and eligibility required in the profession related to wildlife such as:

Environmentalist

SOLUTION

To become an environmentalist, one must possess a bachelor’s or master’s degree in environmental sciences or equivalent

4.Find out the information about the qualification and eligibility required in the profession related to wildlife such as:

Geologist

SOLUTION

To become a geologist, one must have at least a bachelor’s degree in Geology. MSC or PhD in geology can serve as an additional qualification.

5.Find out the information about the qualification and eligibility required in the profession related to wildlife such as:

Tour Manager

SOLUTION

To become a tour manager, one must have a diploma or degree in Travel and Tourism management.


                              COMPLETED

Samacheer, Kalvi, 10th, sslc, Science, Solutions, Chapter 6, Nuclear Physics, tamilnadu board, Physics,

Question 1.
Identify A, B, C, and D from the following nuclear reactions.

Solution:


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 2

A is alpha particle, B is neutron, C is proton and D is electron.

Question 2.
A radon specimen emits radiation of 3.7 × 103 GBq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of a curie, (one curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegration per second)
Solution:
1 Bq = one disintegration per second
one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq

Question 3.
92U235 experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Solution:
Let X and Y be the resulting nucleus after the emission of the alpha and beta particles respectively.

Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number = 231 – 91 = 140.

Question 4.
Calculate, the amount of energy released when a radioactive substance undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 2 kg.
Solution:
Mass defect in the reaction (m) = 2 kg
Velocity of light (c) = 3 × 108 ms-1
By Einstein’s equation,
Energy released E = mc2
= 2 × (3 × 108)2
= 1.8 × 1017 J.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Man – made radioactivity is also known as _____.
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) & (c).
Answer:
(d) (a) & (c).

Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is:
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by _____.
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr.
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place:
(i) a decay;
(ii) P decay
(iii) y decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
_____ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel.
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

Question 6.
Gamma radiations are dangerous because:
(a) it affects eyes and bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
_____ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is / are correct?
(i) α particles are photons
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for α rays
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of:
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction X126⟶α decay zYA, the value of A & Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data.
Answer:
(c) 4, 8

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled.
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled.
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb.
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
One roentgen is equal to ______ disintegrations per second?
Answer:
3.7 × 1010.

Question 2.
Positron is an _____.
Answer:
antiparticle of electron.

Question 3.
Anaemia can be cured by _____ isotope.
Answer:
Radio iron (Fe59).

Question 4.
Abbreviation of ICRP _____.
Answer:
International Commission on Radiological Protection.

Question 5.
_____ is used to measure the exposure rate of radiation in humans.
Answer:
Roentgen.

Question 6.
_____ has the greatest penetration power.
Answer:
Gamma ray.

Question 7.
zYA→Z+1YA+X; Then X is _____.
Answer:
−1e0 (β decay).

Question 8.
zXA→YAZ This reaction is possible in _____ decay.
Answer:
Gamma (γ).

Question 9.
The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about _____ J.
Answer:
3.84 × 10-12.

Question 10.
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of _____ K.
Answer:
107 to 109.

Question 11.
The radioisotope of _____ helps to increase the productivity of crops.
Answer:
phosphorous (P – 32).

Question 12.
If radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause _____.
Answer:
fatal disease.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement

Question 1.
Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.

Question 3.
Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nuclear fission is more dangerous than nuclear fusion. Because the average energy released in fission (3.2 × 10-11 J) process is more than the average energy released in fusion (3.84 × 10-12 J).

Question 4.
Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: U-238 is not a fissile material but are abundant in nature. But in a reactor, this can be converted into a fissile material Pu239 and U233. Only fissile materials are used in the fuel of a nuclear reactor.

Question 5.
If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave like an atom bomb.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Einstein’s theory of mass-energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. BARC(a) Kalpakkam
2. India’s first atomic power station(b) Apsara
3. IGCAR(c) Mumbai
4. The first nuclear reactor in India(d) Tarapur

Answer:
1. (c) Mumbai
2. (d) Tarapur
3. (a) Kalpakkam
4. (b) Apsara

Question 2.

1. Fuel(a) lead
2. Moderator(b) heavy water
3. Coolant(c) Graphite
4. Shield(d) Uranium

Answer:
1. (d) uranium
2. (c) Graphite
3. (b) heavy water
4. (a) lead

Question 3.

1. Soddy Fagan(a) Natural radioactivity
2. Irene Curie(b) Displacement law
3. Henry Becquerel(c) Mass energy equivalence
4. Albert Einstein(d) Artificial Radioactivity

Answer:
1. (b) Displacement law
2. (d) Artificial Radioactivity
3. (a) Natural radioactivity
4. (c) Mass energy equivalence

Question 4.

1. Uncontrolled fission Reaction(a) Hydrogen Bomb
2. Fertile material(b) Nuclear Reactor
3. Controlled fission Reaction(c) Breeder reactor
4. Fusion reaction(d) Atom bomb

Answer:
1. (d) Atom bomb
2. (c) Breeder reactor
3. (b) Nuclear Reactor
4. (a) Hydrogen Bomb

Question 5.

1. Co – 60(a) Age of fossil
2. I – 13(b) Function of Heart
3. Na – 24(c) Leukaemia
4. C – 14(d) Thyroid disease

Answer:
1. (c) Leukemia
2. (d) Thyroid disease
3. (b) Function of Heart
4. (a) Age of fossil

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power.

  1. Alpha rays
  2. Beta rays
  3. Gamma rays
  4. Cosmic rays.

Answer:

  1. Gamma rays
  2. Beta rays
  3. Alpha rays
  4. Cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.

  1. A nuclear reactor
  2. Radioactivity
  3. Artificial radioactivity
  4. Discovery of radium.

Answer:

  1. Radioactivity (1896)
  2. Discovery of radium (1898)
  3. Artificial radioactivity (1934)
  4. Nuclear reactor (1942).

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank

Question 1.
Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process: _____.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity
(or)
Man – made activity.

Question 2.
Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission: _____.
Answer:
Room temperature.

Question 3.
Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart: _____.
Answer:
Radio sodium (Na24).

Question 4.
Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection: _____.
Answer:
γ ray (Gamma – ray).

VII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
88Ra226 experiences three α-decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Solution:
88Ra226 consider as a parent element that is 88X226 and their daughter element is zYA
According to α decay process,
88X26⟶3α decay 82214+3α decay
During the 3α decay, the atomic number decreases by 6 and mass number decreases by 12.
So the number of neutrons in the daughter element
N = A – Z
N = 214 – 88 = 126
Number of neutrons in the daughter element N = 126.

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq).
Solution:
Cobalt specimen emits induced radiation = 75.6 millicurie per second
(1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq)
So 75.6 millicurie = 75.6 × 103 × 1 curie
= 75.6 × 10-3 × 3.7 × 1010 Bq
= 279.72 × 107
= 2.7972 × 109 Bq
75.6 millicurie per second is equivalent to 2.7972 × 109 Bq.

VIII. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U235, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U-235 is a fissile material.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a β – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In β – decay atomic number increases by one.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Explanation: In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘Neutron seeking rods’
Reason: Control rods are used to perform a sustained nuclear fission reaction.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained the chain reaction. They absorb the neutrons, (they seeking the neutrons)

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA)

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel was discovered natural radioactivity.

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium

Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:

  1. Boron and Aluminium.
  2. Alpha particle and neutron.

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α-particle and produces 104Rf259. Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:
In α decay
zXAα decay 263×z−2YA−4+2He4(α decay )106X263⟶α decay 104Rf259+2He4
In element A having atomic number is 106 and mass number is 263.

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
The average energy released from a single fission process is about 3.2 × 10-11 J.

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disorders (or) effect?
Answer:
Radioactive radiations

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause the death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to death.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 in Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
Becquerel

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with the hazardous area. These materials are used to protects us from radiation.

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Natural radioactivityArtificial radioactivity
1. Emission of radiation due to the self-disintegration of a nucleus.1. Emission of radiation due to the disintegration of a nucleus through the induced process.
2. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations are emitted.2. Mostly elementary particles such as neutron, positron, etc. are emitted.
3. It is a spontaneous process.3. It is an induced process.

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (mc). It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define One roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fagan’s displacement law.
Answer:
During a radioactive disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called a parent nucleus and that which remains after the disintegration is called the daughter nucleus.

Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
During the Second World War American, a bomber dropped the nuclear weapons over the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. In the explosion of the atomic bomb to release the high energy dangerous radiation. In the explosion period, Japanese peoples are affected by radiation. This is the reason in Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not Wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr Ramu?
Answer:
X – rays have a destructive effect on living tissue. When the human body is exposed to X – rays, it causes redness of the skin, sores and serious injuries to the tissues and glands. They destroy the white corpuscles of the blood. If you don’t wear the lead aprons these kinds of diseases formed in your body. In my suggestion, you must wear lead aprons.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radioisotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:

  • The radioisotope of phosphorus (P – 32) helps to increase the productivity of crops.
  • The radiations from the radioisotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(a) Controlled chain reaction

  • In the controlled chain reaction, the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission.
  • Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes.
  • The controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(b) Uncontrolled chain reaction:

Question 2.
Compare the properties of Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations.
Answer:

Propertiesα raysβ raysγ rays
What are they?Helium nucleus (2He4)consisting of two protons and two neutrons.They are electrons (−1e0), basic elementary particle in all atoms.They are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.
ChargePositively charged particles. Charge of each alpha particle = +2eNegatively charged particles. Charge of each beta particle = -eNeutral particles. Charge of each gamma particle = zero
Ionising Power100 time greater than β rays and 10,000 times greater than γ raysComparatively lowVery less ionization power
Penetrating powerLow penetrating power (even stopped by a thick paper)Penetrating power is greater than that of α rays. They can penetrate through a thin metal foil.They have a very high penetrating power greater than that of β rays. They can penetrate through thick metal blocks.
Effect of an electric and magnetic fieldDeflected by both the fields. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule)Deflected by both the fields, but the direction of deflection is opposite to that for alpha rays. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule)They are not deflected by both the fields.
SpeedTheir speed ranges from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light.Their speed can go up to 9/10 times the speed of light.They travel with the speed of light.

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
Nuclear reactor: A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self – sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.

Components of a Nuclear Reactor:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

  • Fuel: A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
  • Moderator: A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are commonly used moderators.
  • Control rod: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained a chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
  • Coolant: A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
  • Protection wall: A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
Mass number A = 232
Atomic number Z = 90
Daughter element:
Mass number A = 208
Atomic number Z = 82
Difference in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24
Difference in atomic number
= 90 – 82 = 8
Atomic number of α = 2
Atomic number of β = -1
Mass number of α = 4
Mass number of β = 0
Difference in mass number in transformations
= 24
Number of a decays = 244 = 6
Difference in atomic number = 8
ΔZ = 6α + 4β
= 6(2) + 4(-1)
= 12 – 4
= 8
∴ Number of β decays = 4
∴ Number of α decays = 6
∴ Number of β decays = 4

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:

  • Radiation does involve in X – rays tests and isotope scans (in nuclear medicine) are too low to cause immediate hazardous effects.
  • If should be taken often, X – ray radiation from medical examinations though slightly increases one’s risk for cancer which can occur year or decades after X-ray exposure.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area. why?
Answer:

  1. Living near a cell phone tower is not healthy. There is multiple health risks associated with living near a cell phone tower.
  2. Cell phone towers communicate by use pulsed microwave signals (radiofrequency radiation) with each other.
  3. That is the reason cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Questions

I. Choose the best Answer.

Question 1.
Radium was discovered by _____.
(a) Marie curie
(b) Irene curie
(c) Henri Becquerel
(d) F. Joliot.
Answer:
(a) Marie Curie

Question 2.
How many radioactive substances discovered so far?
(a) 83
(b) 92
(c) 43
(d) 29
Answer:
(d) 29

Question 3.
The SI unit of Radioactivity is _____.
(a) Curie
(b) Rutherford
(c) Becquerel
(d) Roentgen (R).
Answer:
(c) Becquerel

Question 4.
Radioactivity is _____.
(a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increase in pressure
(c) depends on the number of electrons
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon.
Answer:
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon

Question 5.
Which of the following processes is a spontaneous process?
(a) Artifical radioactivity
(b) Natural radioactivity
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Collisions
Answer:
(b) Natural radioactivity

Question 6.
The charge of the β rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) -e

Question 7.
The charge of the γ rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 8.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit artifical radioactivity is:
(a) more than 82
(b) more than 83
(c) less than 83
(d) less than 82
Answer:
(c) less than 83

Question 9.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in the increasing order of their ionizing power.
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, β, α
(d) γ, α, β.
Answer:
(c) γ, β, α

Question 10.
Which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4Coulomb in 1 Kg of air?
(a) Curie
(b) Becquerel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Roentgen
Answer:
(d) Roentgen

Question 11.
Ionising power of the γ rays _____.
(a) Comparatively very high ionization power
(b) 100 times greater than the α rays
(c) 100 times greater than the β rays
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.
Answer:
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.

Question 12.
Ionization power maximum for _____.
(a) neutrons
(b) α particles
(c) γ rays
(d) β particles.
Answer:
(b) α particles

Question 13.
Charge of gamma particle is:
(a) +2e
(b) -e
(c) Zero
(d) +1e
Answer:
(c) Zero

Question 14.
Which has low penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(a) α rays

Question 15.
In β – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) the mass number decreases by one
(c) proton number remains the same
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(d) neutron number decreases by one

Question 16.
In which decay the energy level of the nucleus changes:
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(c) γ – decay

Question 17.
In γ – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(c) energy only changes in the decay process
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).

Question 18.
The unit of decay constant is _____.
(a) no unit
(b) second
(c) second-1
(d) curie.
Answer:
(c) second-1

Question 19.
The range of temperature required for nuclear fusion is from:
(a) 107 to 109 K
(b) 10-9 to 10-7 K
(c) 105 to 109
(d) 105 to 107 K
Answer:
(a) 107 to 109 K

Question 20.
1 Rd is equal to _____.
(a) 106 decay / second
(b) 1 decay / second
(c) 3.7 × 1010 becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 1012 decay / second.
Answer:
(a) 106 decay / second

Question 21.
An element ZXA successively undergoes three α decays and four β decays and gets converted an element Y are respectively _____.
(a) Z−6YA−12
(b) Z+2YA−12
(c) Z−2YA−12
(d) Z−10YA−12.
Answer:
(c) Z−2YA−12

Question 22.
In the nuclear reaction 88Ra226 → X + 2He4X is:
(a) 90Th234
(b) 91Pa234
(c) 86Rn222
(d) 88Rn226
Answer:
(d) 88Rn226

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used in the treatment of skin diseases _____.
(a) Na24
(b) I31
(c) Fe59
(d) P32.
Answer:
(d) P32.

Question 24.
Anaemia can be diagnosed by _____.
(a) 15P31
(b) 15P32
(c) 26P59
(d) 11P24.
Answer:
(c) 26P59

Question 25.
Which is used as a coolant?
(a) Graphite
(b) Liquid sodium
(c) Boron
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(b) Liquid sodium

Question 26.
The energy released per fission is _____.
(a) 220 MeV
(b) 300 MeV
(c) 250 MeV
(d) 200 MeV.
Answer:
(d) 200 MeV.

Question 27.
In the reaction 1N14 + 0n1 → X + 1H1 X is:
(a) 15P30
(b) 6C14
(c) 6C12
(d) 11Na23
Answer:
(c) 6C12

Question 28.
Natural uranium consists of _____.
(a) 99.72 % of U-238
(b) 0.28 % of U-238
(c) 0.72 % of U-238
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.
Answer:
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.

Question 29.
The number of power reactors in India is _____.
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 2.
Answer:
(a) 14

Question 30.
In the nucleus of 11Na23 the number of protons and neutrons are:
(a) 12, 11
(b) 10, 12
(c) 11, 12
(d) 11, 23
Answer:
(c) 11, 12

Question 31.
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) cadmium
(b) boron carbide
(c) heavy water
(d) uranium (92U235).
Answer:
(c) heavy water

Question 32.
The first nuclear reactor was built at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam, India
(b) Hiroshima, Japan
(c) Chicago, USA
(d) Trombay, Bombay.
Answer:
(c) Chicago, USA

Question 33.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of skin cancer?
(a) Radio Cobalt
(b) Radio gold
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold

Question 34.
The explosion of an atom bomb is based on the principle of _____.
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction
(b) fusion reaction
(c) controlled fission reaction
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction

Question 35.
The reactor in which no moderator used is _____.
(a) fast breeder reactor
(b) pressurised water reactor
(c) pressurised heavy water reactor
(d) boiled water reactor.
Answer:
(a) fast breeder reactor

Question 36.
The number of neutrons present in 92U235is:
(a) 133
(b) 143
(c) 43
(d) 243
Answer:
(b) 143

Question 37.
In fast breeder, the coolant system used is _____.
(a) heavy water
(b) light water
(c) liquid sodium
(d) boiled water.
Answer:
(c) liquid sodium

Question 38.
The only reactor in the world which uses U-233 as fuel is _____.
(a) Zerlina
(b) Purnima
(c) Kamini
(d) Tires.
Answer:
(c) Kamini

Question 39.
The temperature of the interior of Sun is about _____.
(a) 1.4 × 107 K
(b) 108 K
(C) 14 × 107 K
(d) 600 K.
Answer:
(a) 1.4 × 107 K

Question 40.
Total energy radiated by Sun is about _____.
(a) 3.6 × 1028 Js-1
(b) 3.8 × 1028 Js-1
(c) 3.8 × 1026 Js-1
(d) 3.8 × 1023 Js-1.
Answer:
(c) 3.8 × 1026 Js-1


II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Cathode rays are discovered by _____.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson.

Question 2.
Positive rays discovered by _____.
Answer:
Goldstein.

Question 3.
The chargeless particles are called neutron, it was discovered by _____.
Answer:
James Chadwick.

Question 4.
Ernest Rutherford explained that the mass of an atom is concentrated in its central part called _____.
Answer:
Nucleus.

Question 5.
The radioactive elements emit harmful radiations are ____, ____, ____ rays.
Answer:
alpha, beta, gamma.

Question 6.
_____ is an spontaneous process.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 7.
The element whose atomic number is more than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
spontaneous process.

Question 8.
______ radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.
Answer:
Uranium.

Question 9.
_____ are the example of artificial (or) man-made radioactive elements.
Answer:
Boron, Aluminium.

Question 10.
The element whose atomic number is less than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
induced radioactivity.

Question 11.
______ is an controlled manner.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity.

Question 12.
Spontaneous radioactivity is also known as _____.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 13.
One Curie is equal to _____ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
3.7 × 1010

Question 14.
One Rutherford (Rd) is equal to ______ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
106

Question 15.
The radioactive displacement law is framed by _____.
Answer:
Soddy and Fajan.

Question 16.
During the α decay process, the atomic number is ______ by 2 and the mass number is decreases by _____.
Answer:
decreases, 4.

Question 17.
In β-decay the atomic number increases by ____ unit and mass number _____.
Answer:
One, remains the same.

Question 18.
In α radiation, the charge of each alpha particle is _____.
Answer:
+2e.

Question 19.
In γ radiation, the charge of each gamma particle is _____.
Answer:
Zero.

Question 20.
In radioactive radiation, which one is travel with the speed of light _____.
Answer:
Gamma radiation.

Question 21.
zYA→z−2YA−4+X; Then X is _____.
Answer:
2He4 (α decay).

Question 22.
zYA→zYA+X; Then X is _____.
Answer:
γ decay.

Question 23.
The average energy released in each fission process in about _____.
Answer:
3.2 × 10-11 J.

Question 24.
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a _____.
Answer:
Neutron.

Question 25.
_____ isotope is used to detect the presence of block in blood vessels and also used for the effective functioning of the heart.
Answer:
Na24 – Radio sodium.

Question 26.
_____ is used to cure goitre.
Answer:
Radio Iodine – I131

Question 27.
_____ is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
Answer:
Radio – iron (Fe59).

Question 28.
Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of _____.
Answer:
Skin cancer.

Question 29.
_____ are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
Answer:
Radiations.

Question 30.
The age of the earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined by _____. technique.
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Question 31.
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to _____.
Answer:
Death.

Question 32.
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick – walled container of _____.
Answer:
Lead.

Question 33.
_____ is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam.
Answer:
Coolant.

Question 34.
The abbreviation of BARC is _____.
Answer:
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.

Question 35.
India’s 1st nuclear power station is _____.
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic Power Station.

Question 36.
The first nuclear reactor built in India was _____.
Answer:
Apsara.

Question 37.
The total nuclear power operating sites in India is _____.
Answer:
7

Question 38.
The energy released in a nuclear fission process is about ______
Answer:
200 Mev.

Question 39.
The number of 0n1 released on an average per fission is _____.
Answer:
2.5.

Question 40.
A hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of _____.
Answer:
Nuclear fusion.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Natural radioactivity(a) 3.7 × 1010decay/second
2. Artificial radioactivity(b) spontaneous process
3. 1 curie(c) 106decay/second
4. 1 Rd (Rutherford)(d) induced process

Answer:
1. (b) spontaneous process
2. (d) induced process
3. (a) 3.7 × 1010 decay / second
4. (c) 106 decay / second

Question 2.

1. Charge of each α particle(a) γ ray
2. Charge of each β particle(b) +2e
3. Penetration power is maximum(c) α ray
4. Ionisation power is maximum(d) zero

Answer:
1. (b) +2e
2. (d) zero
3. (a) γ ray
4. (e) α ray

Question 3.

1. Deuterium(a) −1e0
2. Protium(b) 1H3
3. Tritium(c) 2H4
4. α – decay(d) 1H1
5. β – decay(e) 1H2

Answer:
1. (e) 1H2
2. (d) 1H1
3. (b) 1H3
4. (c) 2H4
5. (a) −1e0

Question 4.

1. Uranium core bomb(a) fusion bomb
2. Plutonium core bomb(b) fission bomb
3. Hydrogen bomb(c) Nagasaki
4. Atom bomb(d) Hiroshima

Answer:
1. (d) Hiroshima
2. (c) Nagasaki
3. (a) fusion bomb
4. (b) fission bomb

Question 5.

1. Radio iron (Fe59)(a) treatment of skin diseases
2. Radio phosphorous (P32)(b) smoke detector
3. Radio gold (Au198)(c) diagnose anaemia
4. An isotope of Americium (Am241)(d) treatment of skin cancer

Answer:
1. (c) diagnose anaemia
2. (a) treatment of skin diseases
3. (d) treatment of skin cancer
4. (b) smoke detector

IV. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in ascending order, on the basis of their penetrating power?
Answer:
Ascending order:

  • Alpha (α)
  • Beta (β)
  • Gamma (γ)

Question 2.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their Ionisation power.
Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
Answer:

  1. Ascending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α)
  2. Descending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)

Question 3.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their biological effect.
Alpha (α), Gamma (γ), Beta (β)
Answer:

  1. Ascending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
  2. Descending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α).

V. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
92U238 emits 8α particles and 6β particles. What is the neutron / proton ratio in the product nucleus?
Solution:

Question 2.
The element with atomic number 84 and mass number 218 change to another element with atomic number 84 and mass number 214. The number of α and β particles emitted are respectively?
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 8
Number of alpha decay, x = 1
Number of beta decay, y = 2.

Question 3.
The number of α and β particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 90Th228⟶83Bi12are respectively.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics 9
Number of α decay, x = 4
Number of β decay, y = 1.

VI. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: All the radioactive element are ultimately converted in lead.
Reason: All the elements above lead are unstable.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Explanation: When they are converted into a lead, the emission is stopped because the nucleus of lead is stable (or lead is most stable elements in radioactive series)

Question 2.
Assertion: Among the alpha, beta and gamma-ray a particle has maximum penetrating power.
Reason: The alpha particle is heavier than beta and gamma rays.
Answer:
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.
Explanation: The penetrating power is maximum in case of gamma rays because gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation of very small wavelength.

Question 3.
Assertion: The ionising power of β – particle is less compared to α – particles but their penetrating power is more.
Reason: The mass of β-particle is less than the mass of α-particle
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: β – particle being emitted with very high speed compared to α – particle. Due to this reason, their loss of energy is very slow and they can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.

Question 4.
Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Neutron is about 0.1 % more massive than a proton. But the unique thing about the neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). This lack of charge gives it the ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the beta particles or alpha particles.

Question 5.
Assertion: zXA undergoes a decays and the daughter product is z−2YA−4
Reason: In α – decay, the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: zXA⟶z−2XA−4+2He4(α decay)

Question 6.
Assertion: Moderator is used to slowing down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons.
Reason: Cadmium rods are used as control rods.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Graphites and heavy water are commonly used moderators. This helps in moderator to slow down the fast neutrons.

Question 7.
Assertion: Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.
Reason: Nuclear fission process can be performed at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: At room temperature, the nuclear fission process can perform breaking up of heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei. In this process to emitted the alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

Question 8.
Assertion: An enormous amount of energy is released which is called stellar energy.
Reason: Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy.

Question 9.
Assertion: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process.
Reason: It is a spontaneous process – natural radioactivity.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process. It is an induced process and man-made radioactivity.

Question 10.
Assertion: Gamma rays, penetrates through materials most effectively.
Reason: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation. This is a reason they can penetrate through materials most effectively.

VII. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Define ‘Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
By whom radioactivity is detected in pitchblende?
Answer:
Marie curie and Purie curie.

Question 3.
Define ‘Artificial Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘Artificial radioactivity’ or ‘Man – made radioactivity’.

Question 4.
Define ‘One curie’.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium 226.
Curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.

Question 5.
In which elements artifical radioactivity is induced?
Answer:
Boron and aluminum

Question 6.
What is alpha decay (α decay)? give an example.
Answer:
A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus is called ‘alpha decay’.
E.g. Decay of uranium (U238) to thorium (Th234) with the emission of an alpha particle.
92U238→90Th234+2He4 (α – decay).

Question 7.
What is beta decay (β decay)? Give an example?
Answer:
A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
E.g. Beta decay of phosphorous.
15P32→16S32+−1e0 (β – decay)

Question 8.
What is gamma decay (γ decay)?
Answer:
In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 9.
State the value of Roentgen in terms of Coulomb.
Answer:
Roentgen = 2.58 × 10-4 Coulomb in / kg of air.

Question 10.
Define ‘nuclear fission’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons are called ‘nuclear fission’.
E.g. Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U235)
92U235+0n1→56Ba141+36Kr92+30n1+Q( energy )

Question 11.
Define ‘Nuclear fusion’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘Nuclear fusion’.
E.g. 1H2+1H2→2He4+Q( Energy )

Question 12.
Write down the types of the nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Breeder reactor, fast breeder reactor, pressurized water reactor, pressurized heavy water reactor, boiling water reactor, water – cooled reactor, gas – cooled reactor, fusion reactor and thermal reactor are some types of nuclear reactors, which are used in different places worldwide.

Question 13.
What is the safe limit of receiving radioactive radiations?
Answer:
100 m R per week

VIII. Answer in the details:

Question 1.
Explain the principle and working of an atom bomb?
Answer:
Atom bomb:
(i) The atom bomb is based on the principle of the uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression.

(ii) This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.

Structure:
(i) An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void.

(ii) It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive.

(iii) The two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. During this explosion, a tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released.

(iv) A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs was exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during World War II.

Question 2.
State and define the units of radioactivity.
Answer:
Curie : It is the traditional unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of lg of radium 226. 1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.

Rutherford (Rd) : It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 106 disintegrations per second.

Becquerel (Bq) : It is the SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Roentgen (R) : It is the radiation exposure of γ and x-rays is measured by another unit called roentgen. One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 3.
Write down the features of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Nuclear FissionNuclear Fusion
1. The process of breaking up (splitting) of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called ‘nuclear fission’.1. Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus.
2. Can be performed at room temperature.2. Extremely high temperature and pressure are needed.
3. Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.3. Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are emitted.
4. Fission leads to emission of gamma radiation. This triggers the mutation in the human gene and causes genetic transform diseases.4. Only light and heat energy are emitted.

Question 4.
Write down the medical and industrial application of radioisotopes?
Answer:

  1. Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective functioning of the heart.
  2. Radio – Iodine (I131) is used to cure goitre.
  3. Radio – Iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
  4. Radio Phosphorous (P32) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
  5. Radio Cobalt (Co60) and radio – gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
  6. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
  7. Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio – gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
  8. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 5.
Write a note about stellar energy.
Answer:
The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy. Where does this high energy come from? All-stars contain a large amount of hydrogen. The surface temperature of the stars is very high which is sufficient to induce fusion of the hydrogen nuclei.

Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as ‘stellar energy’. Thus, nuclear fusion or thermonuclear reaction is the source of light and heat energy in the Sun and other stars.

IX. Additional HOT Questions

Question 1.
Why is neutron so effective as bombarding particle?
Answer:
A neutron carries no charge. It easily penetrates even a heavy nucleus without being repelled or attracted by nucleus and electrons. So it serves as an ideal projectile for starting a nuclear reaction.

Question 2.
Is there any difference between electron and a beta particle.
Answer:
Basically, there is no difference between an electron and a beta particle. β particle is the name given to an electron emitted from the nucleus.

Question 3.
Why are the control rods made of cadmium?
Answer:
Cadmium has high cross – section for the absorption of neutrons.

Question 4.
Name two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities why is it so?
Answer:
Tritium and Plutonium are two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities in the universe.
It is because half-life period of each of two elements is very short compared to the age of the universe.


Chapter 6, Correspondence with Members, hsc, 12th std, secretarial practice, sp, maharashtra board, ebalbharathi, solution,

Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statement.

1.Directors are the ____________

Options
  • paid employee of the company
  • representatives of the share holders
  • creditors of the company

2.Dividend is to be paid to the shareholders within ______ days from the date of declaration.

Options
  • 30
  • 40
  • 20

3.Registered shareholders receive dividend through ______ warrant.

Options
  • share
  • debenture
  • dividend

4.Shares issued free of cost to the shareholders are known as ______ shares.

Options
  • preference
  • equity
  • bonus

5.Share Certificate should be ready for delivery by the company within ______ months after the allotment of shares.

Options
  • 3
  • 5
  • 2

6.Secretarial correspondence with members should be ____________

Options
  • lengthy
  • shortcut
  • prompt and precise

7.Dividend is recommended by ______

Options
  • Board of Directors
  • shareholders
  • Depositors

8.Dividend is paid out of ______ of the company

Options
  • Capital
  • Building Fund
  • Profit

9.______ is issued by the company to its registered shareholders after the declaration of dividend at the Annual General Meeting of the company.

Options
  • Dividend Warrant
  • Interest Warrant
  • Share Warrant

Match the pairs.

Group ‘A’Group ‘B’
a. Dividend Warrant1. Instrument for payment of Interest
b. Return on Shares2. Capitalisation of Building Fund
c. Bonus Shares3. Electronic Clearing Service
d. ECS4. Capitalisation of Reserve Fund
e. NEFT5. National Electronic Fund Transfer
 6. Dividend
 7. Electronic Co-operative Society
 8. National Electronic Fixed Transfer
 9. Instrument for Payment of Dividend
 10. Interest

SOLUTION

Group A’Group ‘B
a. Dividend Warrant9. Instrument for Payment of Dividend
b. Return on Shares6. Dividend
c. Bonus Shares4. Capitalisation of Reserve Fund
d. ECS3. Electronic Clearing Service
e. NEFT5. National Electronic Fund Transfer

Write a word or a term or a phrase which can substitute the following statement.

1.Shares given free of cost to the existing equity shareholders.

SOLUTION

Shares given free of cost to the existing equity shareholders. – Bonus shares

2.Instrument for payment of dividend.

SOLUTION

Instrument for payment of dividend. – Dividend warrant

3.The shareholders to whom the bonus shares are issued.

SOLUTION

The shareholders to whom the bonus shares are issued. – Equity shareholders

4.The authority which recommends the rate of dividend.

SOLUTION

The authority which recommends the rate of dividend. – Board of Directors

5.An officer who comes into contact with all the members of the company through correspondence.

SOLUTION

An officer who comes into contact with all the members of the company through correspondence. – Company secretary

6.A special kind of cheque issued by a company on its banker to pay certain sum of money as dividend to its members.

SOLUTION

A special kind of cheque issued by a company on its banker to pay certain sum of money as dividend to its members. – Dividend warrant


State whether the following statement is true or false.

1.Bonus shares are issued to existing equity shareholders.

Options
  • True
  • False

2.Building fund is used for issue of bonus shares.

Options

  • True
  • False

3.Bonus shares means capitalisation of reserve fund.

Options
  • True
  • False

4.Registered shareholder gets dividend through dividend coupons.

Options
  • True
  • False

5.Dividend is the portion of the profits of the company which is allotted to the holders of the debentures of the company.

Options
  • True
  • False

6.Every company must issue or despatch a share certificate to the allottee within three months after allotment of shares.

Options
  • True
  • False

7.A complaint letter should not be replied promptly.

Options
  • True
  • False

1.Find the odd one.

Options
  • Bonus Letter
  • Dividend Letter
  • Board of Directors

2.Find the odd one.

Options
  • Dividend Warrant
  • Interest Warrant
  • Demat

3.Find the odd one.

Options
  • Secretary
  • Board of Directors
  • Dividend
  • Lucid Language

Complete the sentence.

1.Dividend is recommended by ______

SOLUTION

Dividend is recommended by Board of Directors.

2.A company capitalises its Reserve Fund for issue of ______ shares.

SOLUTION

A company capitalises its Reserve Fund for issue of Bonus shares.

3.Payment of dividend must be made within ______ days of its declaration.

SOLUTION

Payment of dividend must be made within 30 days of its declaration.

4.Dividend is approved by the ______ in the Annual General Meeting.

SOLUTION

Dividend is approved by the Shareholders in the Annual General Meeting.

5.The ______ has to communicate the decisions of the management to the members by conducting correspondence.

SOLUTION

The secretary has to communicate the decisions of the management to the members by conducting correspondence.


1.Select the correct option from the bracket.


Group ‘A’
Group ‘B’
a) Return on share1. ______
b) Capitalisation of Reserve Fund2. ______
c) Correspondence3. ______
d) ______4. Payment of Dividend Electronically

SOLUTION

Group ‘A’Group ‘B’
a) Return on share1. Dividend
b) Capitalisation of Reserve Fund2. Bonus Shares
c) Correspondence3. Written Communication
d) ECS4. Payment of Dividend Electronically

Answer in one sentence:

1.What is dividend warrant?

SOLUTION

A dividend warrant is a cheque sent by a company to a shareholder for payment of dividend to the registered address of the shareholder.

2.What is capitalisation of reserves?

SOLUTION

Capitalisation of reserves is to capitalise profits of the company and to provide additional (bonus) shares to the existing equity shareholders without any additional cost.

3.What is Dividend?

SOLUTION

Dividend is the portion or part of the profits of the company which is distributed to the equity shareholders of the company.

4.Who recommends the rate of dividend ?

SOLUTION

Board of Directors recommends rate of dividend.

5.Which type of shareholders enjoy the benefit of Bonus Shares?

SOLUTION

Existing equity shareholders of the company enjoy the benefits of Bonus Shares.

6.What is meant by payment of dividend electronically?

SOLUTION

A company can use an online payment facility to make payments of dividends to their shareholders i.e. electronically through ECS, NEFT, etc. It is known as the payment of dividends electronically.


Correct the underlined word/s and rewrite the following sentence:

1.Dividend is recommended by shareholders.

SOLUTION

Dividend is recommended by Board of directors.

2.The person who purchases shares of the company is called Depositor

SOLUTION

The person who purchases shares of the company is called Shareholder.

3.Bonus shares are issued as a free gift to the preference shareholders.

SOLUTION

Bonus shares are issued as a free gift to the equity shareholders.

4.Payment of dividend must be made within 21 days of its declaration.

SOLUTION

Payment of dividend must be made within 30 days of its declaration.

5.A company must issue the Share Certificate within three months of allotment of shares.

SOLUTION

A company must issue the Share Certificate within two months of allotment of shares.


1.Arrange in proper order.

a) Allotment of shares

b) Application for shares

c) Share certificate

SOLUTION

(b) Application for shares

(a) Allotment of shares

(c) Share certificate

2.Arrange in proper order.

a) Member

b) Applicant

c) Bonus shares

SOLUTION

(b) Applicant

(a) Member

(c) Bonus shares


Explain the following term/concept:

1.Capitalisation of Reserves

SOLUTION

(1) The process of issuing the bonus shares out of the company’s profits or reserves is known as “Capitalisation of Profits or Reserves.

(2) It is a reward to shareholders, distributed in proportion to the number of shares each owns. The process has no impact on a corporation book value.

2.Bonus Shares

SOLUTION

(1) Bonus issues refer to the fully paid-up shares given to its existing equity shareholders without any cost, based upon the number of shares they are own. It is given at free of cost.

(2) For this purpose, a certain proportion is decided. For instance, if a person holds 100 shares and the company declares 1:2 bonus issues, then for every 2 shares held, he gets 1 share for free of cost.

3.Dividend Warrant

SOLUTION

(1) A dividend warrant is a kind of document that reflects whether a shareholder is entitled for a dividend or not.

(2) It is an order of payment in which the dividend is paid. A company uses the dividend warrant to pay the dividend in the form of cashback.

1.Which precautions are to be taken by the Secretary while corresponding with members?

SOLUTION

Followings are the precautions to be taken by the secretary while corresponding with members:

The Company Secretary has to correspond with Members on various occasions. While writing various letters, the Secretary should give due respect to the Members, provide complete and correct information

Thus, writing letters to the Members is a challenging task and it requires skills, knowledge, and techniques.

1. Correct Information: The Secretary should always provide correct, up-to-date, and factual information to the Members. Due care should be taken while giving facts and figures

2. Lucid Language: The Secretary must use simple words, simple sentences, and adopt a convincing style while writing letters to the Members. Technical words, long sentences should be avoided in the letter. It should be easy to understand.

3. Prompt Response: The Secretary must be prompt in sending replies to the letters received from the Members. Any questions or queries raised by the members must be promptly replied by the Secretary. Complaint letters should be promptly attended to without any delay.

4. Secrecy: The Secretary should not disclose any confidential information of the company to the Members. The Secretary should tactfully answer some letters without giving any secret information of the company.

5. Politeness (Courtesy): A courteous letter shows sympathy, respect, and mutual understanding. Politeness means the use of courteous language. A complaint letter should be replied politely. Rude language should be strictly avoided while corresponding with Members.

6. Legal matters: The Secretary should compulsorily follow relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 with the latest amendments and other relevant laws while corresponding with Members. While drafting these letters, if necessary Secretary should consult with a legal advisor on certain matters.

7. Consideration: The writer should due the importance and consideration to the reader and consider the problems of the members. While sending negative replies, he should draft these letters more carefully, so that Members should not be hurt. Secretary should make the member feel that the management honestly regrets refusal.

8. Image of the Company: The Secretary should try to project a good image of the company in every situation. While drafting the letters, the Secretary has to try his best to remove their doubts, queries, and difficulties in a polite and courteous manner.

2.What are the circumstances under which Secretary undertakes correspondence with members?

SOLUTION

The following are the few circumstances under which the Secretary enters into correspondence with the members of the company

1. Letter for the issue of the Share Certificate.

2. Letter for Payment of Dividend through

a) Dividend Warrant

b) Electronic Payment of Dividend

3. Letter for Issue of Bonus Shares

4. Reply letter to the query of the member on a low rate of dividend.


Justify the following statement

1.The Company Secretary should take certain precautions while corresponding with members

SOLUTION

Justification:

The company secretary should take certain precautions while corresponding with members. They are as follows:

(a) Prompt Reply: In any correspondence prompt reply is very important. The company Secretary must give prompt replies to any queries of the members.

(b) Correct Information: The letter acts as a representative of the organization. Thus, the secretary should always provide all the correct information in a concise or compact manner.

(c) Courtesy: The letter to the members should be polite. A courteous letter shows empathy, respect, and mutual understanding.

(d) Lucid Language: While corresponding with members, the secretary must use simple and lucid language. It should be easy to understand.

(e) Accuracy: In correspondence with members “accuracy” or perfectness is very much important. The Secretary must provide accurate information.

Thus, the company secretary should take certain precautions while corresponding with members.

2.There are certain circumstances when a Secretary has to correspond with members.

SOLUTION

Justification:

There are circumstances under which a secretary has to enter into correspondence with members. They are as follows:

(a) Letter for the issue of share certificate

(b) Letter for Payment of Dividend through:

• Dividend warrant

• Electronic Payment of Dividend Bonus Shares.

(c) Letter for Issue of Bonus Shares

(d) Reply letter to the query of the member on low rate of dividend.

Thus, there are certain circumstances when a secretary has to correspond with members.


Attempt the following.

1.Write a letter to the shareholder regarding issue of Bonus Shares.

SOLUTION

YASH INDUSTRIES LIMITED

Registered office: 102, New MIDC, Usha Tower, Shahu Chowk

Mumbai – 400 031,

CIN: L40407 MH 20050PLC710007

Website: www.yashindustrieslimited.com

E-mail: yash30@gmail.com

Date: 16thOctobar, 2019

Tel.no. 022-23252323

Fax no. 022-23600445

Ref no. Y/MR-B /5/19-20

Ms. Yukta Shroff

715, Narayan Peth

Laxmi Road,

Pune – 411 038.

Sub. : Issue of Bonus Shares

Dear Madam,

       I am directed by the Board of Directors to inform you that in accordance with the resolution passed in the Extra-ordinary General Meeting of the company held on 14th October 2019 Shareholders have unanimously approved the recommendation of the Board of Directors to issue Bonus Shares. Bonus Shares are issued in the ratio of 1:1, i.e. one additional equity share for every equity share held as on record date 13th October 2019.

The Details of issue of Bonus Shares are as follows:

12345
No. of Shares held on record dateNo. of Bonus Shares Issued/AllottedD.P.ID No.Client ID No.Date of Credit to Demat A/c
Credit to Demat Account no.
2525IN 3001001011606131-10-2019

The Company has complied with the provisions for the issue of Bonus Shares. The Bonus Shares issued will rank pari passu with the existing equity shares.

Thanking you,

Yours faithfully,       

For Yash Industries Limited

Sign          

(Mr. S. R. Naik)   

Company Secretary


2.Write a letter to the member for the issue of Share Certificate.

SOLUTION

COMFORT MOTORS LTD.

Registered office: A/30, Aurora Towers, M. G. Road, Camp,

Pune 411 012.

CIN: U12111 MH 2000 PCL300477

Phone: 020-80032844

Fax: 020-50063015

Ref. No. C/MR-SC/30/19-20

Website: www.comfortmotorsltd.com

Email: comfort31@gmail.com

Date: 12th July, 2019

Mr. Jayant Modi

Abhiman Apartment

30, L. B. Road,

Pune – 411 001.

Sub: Issue of Share Certificate

Dear Sir,

This is to inform you that as per your Request Application No. 50, I am hereby authorised to issue you a Share Certificate. The said Share Certificate will be delivered to you within 15 days from the date of this letter by registered post to your registered address as mentioned in the Register of Members.

Details of issue of Share Certificate are as follows:

1234
Folio No.Share Certificate NumbersDistinctive NumbersTotal Number of Shares
FromTo
10069630301400100

It shall always be our endeavour to provide the best of our services to you at all times.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully,       

For Comfort Motors Ltd.

Sign           

Mr. Anand Swami 

Company Secretary


3.Write a letter to the member for the payment of dividend through Dividend Warrant.

SOLUTION

ANMOL STEEL INDUSTRIES LIMITED

Registered office: 30, Anmol Niwas, J. M. Road, Nariman point,

Mumbai – 400 020.

CIN: L30408 MH 2003 PLC110845

Phone: 022-97675877

Fax: 022-30010331

Ref. No. A/MR-D/7/19-20

Website: www.anmolindustrieslimited.com

E-mail: anmol5@gmail.com

Date: 7th May, 2019

Mrs. Jyoti Surti

12, Laxmi Niwas,

Amrapali Marg, Bandra,

Mumbai – 400 050.

Sub: Payment of Dividend on Equity Shares

(Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each at par)

Dear Madam.

      I am instructed by the Board of Directors to convey to you that in the 31st Annual General Meeting held on 20th April 2019, the Final Dividend @ ₹ 2.5 per equity share of ₹ 10/- each has been approved by the members for the year ending 31st March 2019,

Your company has complied with all the statutory provisions (Sec. 123 of the Companies Act. 2013) relating to the declaration of dividend.

Details of dividend payable to you are as follows:

1234567
Register Folio No.No. of Shares heldDistinctive Nos.Dividend Warrant No.Gross DividendIncome Tax Deducted(TDS)Net Dividend
FromTo
A-30100301400B-9931₹ 250/-NIL₹ 250/-

The ‘Dividend Warrant’ is attached herewith. Please detach the ‘Dividend Warrant along the perforated line.

Thanking you,

Yours faithfully,          

For Anmol Steel Industries Limited.

Sign                    

   Secretary                 

Encl. : Dividend Warrant


4.Write a letter to the member for the payment of Interim dividend electronically.

SOLUTION

GURUSAI AUTO LIMITED

Registered Office: 31, Tulsi Complex, Lodhi Road, Camp, Pune – 411 001.

CIN: L40103 MH 1999 PLC300477

Phone: 020-24032844

Fax: 020-24356101

Ref. No. S/MR-D/12/19-20

Website: www.asterclasses.com

E-mail: sai31@gmail.com

Date: 3rd June, 2019

Mr. Jayant Modi

15, Sagar Apartment

Van Vihar Road

Pune – 411 030.

Sub. : Payment of Interim Dividend through Electronic Clearing Service (ECS), Direct Credit/NEFT

Dear Sir,

    We are pleased to inform you that the Board of Directors of Gurusai Auto Limited in its meeting held on Thursday, 28th May 2019 has declared Interim Dividend @ Re. 1/- (i.e. 10%) per equity share of face value of Rs. 10/- each.

As per the instructions given by you (either in person or through Depository Participant), we have remitted the amount of aforesaid Interim Dividend to your Banker for crediting your Bank Account, i.e. Dividend will be payable by electronic transfer. Your company has complied with all the provisions relating to the declaration and payment of dividends.

Details of the Dividend payable to you are given below –

123456
No. of Equity Shares held on Record Date (May 31st, 2019)Dividend Per Share (₹)Dividend Amount (₹)DPID and Client ID No.Date of RemittanceBank A/c. (BOB)
50015006th June, 20195656000 22105 Bank of Baroda

Please verify the credit of amount in your Pass Book/Statement of accounts.

As per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 no tax is required to be deducted at source in respect of Dividend payment, but dividend Distribution Tax has been paid by the Company.

Thanking you,

Yours faithfully,          

For Gurusai Auto Limited

Sign                  

(Mr. Jitesh M. Gandhi)    

  Company Secretary      


5.Draft a reply letter resolving the query of the member on low rate of dividend.

SOLUTION

SHREE CEMENT INDUSTRIES LIMITED

Registered Office: 31, Tulsi Tower, Bandra (East), Mumbai – 400 050

CIN: L50307 MH 2000 PLC160699

Phone: 022-24245025

Fax: 022-45456035

Ref. No. S/MR-D/25/19-20

Website: www.shreecementindustriesltd.com

E-mail: shree3@gmail.com

Date: 20th April, 2019

Ms. Kishor Malpani

15/21, Lotus Apt.,

Borivali (W),

Mumbai – 400 103.

Sub. : Resolving Query on Low Rate of Dividend made by the Company

Dear Sir,

      This is to inform you that as per your letter dated 15th April 2019 I am hereby authorised to resolve your query regarding the low rate of dividend paid by the company to their faithful members. The reasons for the low rate of dividend are mentioned below :

  1. That during the last year, due to the floods, company’s factory situated at Mahim (E) was not in a condition to operate in a full fledge manner.
  2. That due to such unavoidable circumstances of natural disaster company faced huge financial losses.
  3. That due to such circumstances Board of Directors has decided to transfer Rupees 12.5 crores to General Reserves which is 50% more than the amount transferred to Reserves last year.

Hope you will be satisfied by the above information as provided by the company. We assure you that company will easily come over from such unavoidable circumstances and will deliver much better dividend in the coming years.

Thanking you,

Yours faithfully,          

For Shree Cement Industries Limited

Sign            

(Mr. Suhas Bajaj)   

 Company Secretary 

                                     COMPLETED

Tamil board, ssc, history, Chapter 6, Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu, sanacheer kalvi,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?

(a) Marudhu brothers

(b) Puli Thevar

(c) Velunachiyar

(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman

Answer:

(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.

Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?

(a) Velunachiyar

(b) Puli Thevar

(c) Nawab of Arcot

(d) Raja of Travancore

Answer:

(c) Nawab of Arcot

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.

Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?

(a) Velunachiyar

(b) Kattabomman

(c) Puli Thevar

(d) Oomai thurai

Answer:

(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.

Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?

(a) Kayathar

(b) Nagalapuram

(c) Virupachi

(d) Panchalamkurichi

Answer:

(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.

Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?

(a) Marudhu brothers

(b) Puli Thevar

(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman

(d) Gopala Nayak

Answer:

(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.

When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?

(a) 24 May 1805

(b) 10 July 1805

(c) 10 July 1806

(d) 10 September 1806

Answer:

(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.

Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?

(a) Col. Fancourt

(b) Major Armstrong

(c) Sir John Cradock

(d) Colonel Agnew

Answer:

(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.

Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?

(a) Calcutta

(b) Mumbai

(c) Delhi

(d) Mysore

Answer:

(a) Calcutta


II. Fill in the blanks

The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by …………….

Except the Palayakkarars of ……………. all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.

Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ……………. for eight years.

Bennerman deputed ……………. to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.

Kattabomman was hanged to death at …………….

The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the …………….

……………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.

……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Answers:

Viswanatha Nayaka of Madurai

Sivagiri

Gopala Nayakar

Ramalinganar

Kayathar

Second Palayakarar war

Fateh Hyder (the eldest son of Tipusultan)

Colonel. Gillespie


III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

(i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.

(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.

(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.

(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.

(i) UnderColonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.

(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.

(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.

(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.

Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

Answer:

(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.

Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.

(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Answer:

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)


IV. Match the following

Answer:

A. (v)

B. (iii)

C. (ii)

D. (i)

E. (iv)


V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.

What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?

Answer:

The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.

On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 2.

Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.

Answer:

The two prominent blocs were Eastern and Western Palayams:

Eastern Palayams:

Western Palayams:

Uthumalai

Thallawankottai

Naduvakurichi

Singampatti

Seithur.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.

Why was Heron dismissed from service?

Answer:

Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars. Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from sendee.

Question 4.

What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?

Answer:

With the support of the East India company Arcot Nawab Mohamed Ali wanted to bring Madurai and Tirunelveli regions which were under the command of Nawab Chandra Sahib’s agents.

These agents got the support of Tamil Palayakkarars and had close relationship with Puli Thevar.

An army was sent under the head of Mahfiizkhan to capture Tirunelveli.

Before he station his troops near Kalakadu 2000 soldiers from Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.

In the Battle of Kalakadu Mahfiizkhan troops were routed.

The organized resistance of the Palayakkarars under Puli Thevar gave an opportunity to the English to interfere directly in the affairs of Tirunelveli.

Question 5.

What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?

Answer:

The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 6.

Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.

Answer:

The proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British.

Many Palayakkars rebelled together, especially Chinna Maruthu collected nearly 20,000 men to challenge British.

But the Rajas of Pudukkottai, Ettayapuram and Thanjavur supported British.

So, in May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichy rebels failed.

Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generation.

The rebellion of Marudhu brothers is a land mark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.

It is also known as “South Indian Rebellion”.

Question 7.

Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.

Answer:

Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.


VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.

Velunachiyar

(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?

Answer:

The military chief of Velunachiyar was ‘Thandavarayanar’.

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?

Answer:

Velunachiyar had training in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?

Answer:

She married Muthu Vadugar the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?

Answer:

Her daughter name was Vellachinachiyar.


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.

Dheeran Chinnamalai

(а) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?

Answer:

Dheeran Chinnamalai was born in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?

Answer:

Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.

Answer:

Mohammed Ali

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?

Answer;

He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.

Answer:

Several events led to the conflicts between Veerapandiya Kattabomman and the East India Company.

Event 1:

Under the provisions of a treaty signed in 1781 with Mysore Sultan the East India Company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi where Veerapandiya Kattabommman was the ruler.

The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.

The collectors adopted force and humiliated the Palayakaras to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Event 2: Collector Jackson against the wish of the Madras Government wanted to send an army to collect the revenue dues from Kattabomman.

The arrogant English collector ordered Kattabomman to meet him in. Ramanathapuram. But Kattabomman’s attempts became futile as Jackson refused to meet him.

At last Kattabomman was made to stand for three hours before the haughty collector in Ramanathapuram.

Sensing danger Kattabomman with his brother’s help escaped from that place.

Kattabomman on his return to Panchalamkurichi represented to the Madras Council about his ill treatment by the collector Jackson.

Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798 and proved that he was not committed any offence.

He cleared almost all the revenue arrears.

Jackson was dismissed from his service.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Event 3: Inspired by the Marudhu brothers Tiruchirapaili proclamation Kattabomman was interested to join the confederacy.

Kattabomman and Marudhu brothers jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.

Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri who was a tributary to the company.

So the company considered Kattabomman’s expedition as a challenge to their authority.

Under the command of Bannerman on 1st September 1799 an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

The evasive reply of Kattabomman made Bannerman to attack the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.

Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.

The Britsh put a prize on his head.

Betrayed by the Rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was arrested.

During the trial before all the Palayakkarars he bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.

He was hanged to death at Kayatharu near Tirunelveli on 16th October.

His courageousness and bravery was enacted as ballads by Indian folks.

Question 2.

Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.

Answer:

In May 1801, the English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchirappalli. The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil. But they were defeated by the forces of the English. In the end, the able commanders of the English company helped. Unfortunately, the rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.

Outcomes

The Marudhu brothers were executed in the fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram on 24 October 1801.

Oomaithurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkuruchi on 16 November 1801.

Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.

Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generations.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.

Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.

Answer:

Causes for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806:

The Sepoys in the British Indian Army had a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

The English officers disrespect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.

Many sepoys families were in dire economic straits due to out break of famine in 1805 and the unsettled conditions caused by new land tenures.

The imprisonment of Tipu’s sons and the family members in Vellore Fort.

The immediate cause for the revolt was triggered by the new military regulations introduced by the Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.

The Indian soldiers were not allowed to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.

They were asked to shave their beard and trim the moustache to look smart.

The most resented cause was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

The sepoys were compelled to wear the turban and those who refused were severely punished.

In 10th July 1806 in the early hours guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the regiments 1st and 23rd raised their standard of revolt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.

Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.

Answer:

Few names of the patriotic leaders of the’early revolt against the British mle in Tamil Nadu are listed below.

Subramaniya Bharathiyar

Kumaraswamy Mudaliar (popularly known as Tiruppur Kumaran)

Velunachiyar

Vanchinathan

Veerapandia Kattabomman

V.O. Chidambaram

Dheeran Chinnamalai

Subramaniya Siva

The Maruthu Pandiyar brothers (Periya Maruthu, Chinna Maruthu)

Puli Thevar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Students can collect pictures of the above mentioned patriotic leaders and paste it in a notebook, prepare an album and submit to the teacher. Below the picture, student should also write the name of the patriotic leader below the picture.

If the student is very good in drawing skills, then instead of pasting pictures, they can also draw two or three of the patriotic leaders images and write their name below and prepare an album. Students can also use their creativity, imagine a battle field and can portrait that also.

Question 2.

Stage play visualising the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.

Answer:

Stage play – Conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman.

Participants: Characters – Kattabomman, Subramanianar, Oomaithurai, Collector Jackson, Company officials soldiers.

Scence – 1 Kattabomman’s Court.

A company official reading the notice issued by collector Jackson. (Kattabomman’s soldier asking permission to let in the company official)

Sepoy : Maharaja, English East India Company’s servant brought a message for you. Shall I ask him to let in. I seek your permission.

Kattabomman : Allow him. (Servant entry)

Kattabomman: What message you have brought?

Servant : Maharaja (Reading the message)

I, “The collector of Ramnad” issuing order to Kattabomman to meet in person.

Kattabomman : yes you can go

Scene – 2

Kattabomman and his Minister and some soldiers going to meet Jackson after hearing he was camping at placard showing courtallam.

Collector has gone Srivilliputtur (Voice)

Placard showing Srivilliputur (You are asked to come to Ramanathapuram)

Scene – 3 (Ramanathapuram Fort)

Kattabomman waiting outside the gate to meet the Collector. After lhour he was asked to get inside the court of collector Jackson.

Jackson: Not noticing him wantedly I am

Kattabomman: I am kattabomman who is collector Jackson.

Jackson: Got angry Hay who are you nian calling me by name?

Kattabomman: I am Kattabomman wants to know who you are? Asking me the question.

(Further got irritated)

Jackson: I am collector Jackson. Are you the defiant Kattabomman.

Kattabomman: I want to know for what reason I was asked to come over here. As a coward ran and came to Ramanathapuram Mr. Jackson.

Jackson: Shut up man. You have the charge on you that you didn’t pay neither the tribute not the tax arrears.

(Irritated by his command)

Kattabomman: Whom do you expect to pay tribute or Taxes. Me? Why I should pay taxes. It’s our land the nature is giving water to the field. We the people till the land, sow the seeds plant the saplings watered the field, nurtured the plants, removed the weeds. What work you have done for asking the tax.

Jackson: Hay man Kattabomman you are talking too much, Your region belong to us.

Kattabomman: (Laughing) Is it so? Who gave you the right of possession?

Jackson: (Furiated yelling) Guards arrest him.

(Guards entry)

Kattabomman: Sensing the danger took out the sword (fighting and escaping from that place)

(screen)

Question 3.

A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Answer:

Common causes for the Revolt at Vellore and Revolt of 1857.

Vellore Revolt:

Most of the soldiers in the British army were well trained soldiers from various Palayams. Hindus and Muslims majority Indian Troops.

Resentment over low salary promotion prospects

New dress code, rules and regulations affected the religions sentiments.

Uprising was well planned and raised by the soldiers at Vellore Fort shot down many colonels

Immediate cause introduction of Agnew Turban- a leather hat made of animal skin.

Soldiers were forced to wear the Turban.

Spread to other areas Bellary, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Sankagiri, Walajabad, Nandy durg.

Fateh hyder Tipu’s son was declared as their leader.

Revolt of 1857:

Most of the soldiers were from Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims. Out numbered the English officers.

Same point of view low salary inferior out look of the English officers.

Conversion activities interference in the Indian culture affected their sentiments.

Revolt originated from Bengal regiment.

Introduction of Greased cartridges smeared with animal fat.

Indian soldiers were compelled to use the cartridges.

Spead to Kanpur, Delhi, Oudh, Jhansi, Lucknow, Bihar etc.

Emperor Bahadhur Shah II of Delhi was made to sit on the throne and declared as the emperor of India.

These points clearly shows that the Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Important Questions And Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.

Palayakkarars in Tamil refers to the:

(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

(b) Revenue collectors of the British

(c) Rebels of the Carnatic region

(d) Commanders of Nawab of Arcot

Answer:

(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

Question 2.

Palayakkarars police duties were known as ……………….

(a) Padikaval

(b) Village Kaval

(c) Irravu Kaval

Answer:

(a) Padikaval

Question 3.

The first female ruler of Sivagangai who resisted the colonial power of the British:

(a) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai

(b) Rani Mangammal

(c) Velunachiyar

(d) Kuyili

Answer:

(c) Velunachiyar

Question 4.

Puli Thevar was defeated by …………… in 1767.

(a) Khan Sahib

(b) Captain Campbell

(c) Hyder Ali

Answer:

(b) Captain Campbell

Question 5.

The British commander who put down the Vellore revolt was:

(a) Bannerman

(b) William Bentinck

(c) Sir John cradock

(d) Colonel Gillespie

Answer:

(d) Colonel Gillespie

Question 6.

Who was Mahfuzkhan?

(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

(b) Minister of the Nawab of Arcot

(c) Brother of Yusuf Khan

(d) Indian sepoy in the British army

Answer:

(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

Question 7.

Veerapandiya Kattabomman was the Palayakkarar of :

(a) Sivagangai

(b) sivagiri

(c) Madurai

(d) Panchalamkurichi

Answer:

(d) Panchalamkurichi

Question 8.

Where did Kattabomman escape?

(a) Ettayapuram

(b) Coimbatore

(c) Pudukottai

(d) Tarapuram

Answer:

(c) Pudukottai

Question 9.

On his return to Panchalamkurichi ………………….. represented to the Madras council.

(a) Kattabomman

(b) Marudhu brothers

(c) Puli Thevar

(d) Dheeran chinnamalai

Answer:

(a) Kattabomman

Question 10.

Which city was annexed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?

(a) Ramanathapuram

(b) Coimbatore

(c) Panchalamkuruchi

(d) Pudukottai

Answer:

(b) Coimbatore

Question 11.

Jackson was dismissed from service and a new collector ………………….. was appointed.

(a) Syed

(b) Clarke

(c) William Brown

(d) S.R Lushington

Answer:

(d) S.R Lushington

Question 12.

Kattabomman cleared all the revenue arrears leaving only a balance of ………………….. pagodas.

(a) 1180

(b) 1080

(c) 1801

(d) 1108

Answer:

(b) 1080

Question 13.

Yadhul Nayak was the Palayakkarar of:

(a) Coimbatore

(b) Dindigul

(c) Anamalai

(d) Kamudhi

Answer:

(c) Anamalai

Question 14.

Oomathurai and Sevathaiah the two brothers of Kattabomman escaped from the Palayamkottai prison to:

(a) Kamudhi

(b) Sivagangai

(c) Kerala8

(d) Thiruchirappalli

Answer:

(a) Kamudhi

Question 15.

………………….. involved in setting the disputes in the Kongu region.

(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

(b) Velunachiyar

(c) Oomathurai

(d) Gopala Nayak

Answer:

(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

II. Fill in the blanks

The word ………………….. means a domain a military camp or a little kingdom.

The Palayakkararsystem was in practice during the rule of ………………….. of warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom.

The police duties of Palayakkarars were known as …………………..

The Palayakkarars of Sivagiri, Ettayapuram and Panchalamkurichi did not join the confederacy of …………………..

The unity of the Palayakkarars began to break with the …………………..

In 1772 under the command of ………………….. stormed the kalaiyar kovil palace.

The South Indian confederacy was organised by

The forces of Diwan of Mysore and Chinnamalai fought at

The failed because there was no immediate help from outside.

The was the predecessor of the great Revolt of 1857.

Under poligar system was given for valuable military services rendered by any individual.

The began to consolidate and extend its influence after the three carnatic wars in Tamil Nadu.

………………….. the Minister of viswanatha Nayaka helped him to introduce Palayakkarar system in Tamil Nadu.

The Palayakkarar system lasted for from ………………….. the Nayaks of Madurai.

Within their respective Palayams Palayakkarars function as ………………….. authorities.

Traditionally there were ………………….. Palayakkarars created by Nayak rulers.

Many Palayakkarars refused to pay taxes to the company as their lands handed down to them over …………………..

The company branded ………………….. as rebels.

Mahfuzkhan was the brother of …………………..

………………….. was sent with a contingent army under colonel Heron to capture Tirunelveli and Madurai.

Mahfuzkhan had the support of ………………….. and ………………….. from the carnatic to capture Tirunelveli.

Two thousand soldiers from ………………….. joined the forces of Puli Thevar at kalakad.

The Palayakkarars of Tirunelveli under Puli Thevar constantly rebelled against

Yusufkhan’s (Khan sahib) original name was ………………….. before his conversion to Islam.

The ………………….. from Tiruchirappalli arrived in September 1760 to assist Yusufkhan to attack Puli Thevar.

The battering of ………………….. by Yusufkhan took two months.

Expel of French power from Pondicherry made Travancore, ………………….., Uthumalai and ………………….. to support the English.

The ………………….. was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764 by the company.

Captain ………………….. defeated Puli Thevar in 1767.

Puli Thevar escaped and died in …………………..

Velunachiyar was under the protection of Gopala Nayak for ………………….. years.

At the age of 16 ………………….. was married to Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.

Dalavay means …………………..

In behalf of Velunachiyar Dalavai ………………….. wrote a letter to Sultan Hyder AN seeking military assistance.

Hyder Ali ordered his commandant ………………….. in Dindigul Fort to provide required military assistance to Velunachiyar.

Kuyili faithful friend of Velunachiyar led a unit of women soldiers named after …………………..

………………….. was the shepherd girl who was killed by the company for not divulging information on kuyili the commander.

The company’s administrators ………………….. and ………………….. considered Kattabomman a man of peaceful disposition.

To meet out the expenses of Nawab and his family ………………….. of the revenue (taxes) collection was allowed.

The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was ………………….. pagodas in 1798.

The did not give permission to collector Jackson to send an army to Panchalamkurichi to collect dues from Kattabomman.

Kattabomman’s Minister ………………….. accompanied him to Ramanathapuram to met collector Jackson.

In a clash at the gate of Ramanathapuram Fort English officer ………………….. was killed.

In may 1799 ………………….. issued orders from Madras for the advance of forces to Tirunelveli.

Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on …………………..

………………….. gathered all the secrets of the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.

In a clash at ………………….. Sivasubramanianar was taken a prisoner.

Kattabomman escaped to …………………..

………………….. was executed at Nagalapuram on 13th September.

Kattabomman was hanged from a ………………….. in the old Fort of Kayathar.

Answers:

Palayam

Prataba Rudhra

Padikaval or Arasukaval

Puli Thevar

elimination of French power from Pondicherry

Lt. Col Bon Jour

Marudhu brothers of Sivagangai

Noyyal river bed

Vellore Revolt

Vellore Revolt

Palayam

English East India Company

Ariyanathar

two hundred years

independent sovereign

72

sixty generations

defiant Palayakkarars

Nawab of Arcot

Mahfuzkhan

cavalry and foot soldiers

Travancore

Nawab’s authority

Marudhunayagam

artillary

Nerkkatumseval Fort

Seithur, Surandai

Yusufkhan

Campbell

exile

eight

Velunachiyar

Military chief

Thandavarayanar

Syed

Udaiyal

Udaiyal

James London, Colin Jackson

one- sixth

3310

Madras Government

Sivasubramanianar

Lietenant Clarke

Lord Wellesley

5th September 1799

Ramalinganar

Kallarpatti

Pudukottai

Sivasubramanianar

Tamarind tree


III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.

(i) Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with Hyder Ali.

(ii) Hyder Ali provided the required military assistance to Velunachiyar

(iii) A fierce battle was fought at Devadanampatti.

(iv) Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived in Ramanathapuram.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Answer:

(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.

(i) Dheeran chinnamalai was trained by the French.

(ii) He launched Gwerilla attack and evaded capture by the British.

(iii) He was born at Coimbatore,

(iv) He refused to accept the rule of the British.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (i) and (iii) are correct

Answer:

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.

(i) Coimbatore was annexed at the end of the Anglo – Mysore was in 1799.

(ii) The status of Raja of Thanjavur had been reduced to that of a vassal.

(iii) English East India company acquired the revenue districts of salem and Dindigul from Tipu.

(iv) A treaty was forced on Marudhu brothers on the charge of disloyalty.

(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Answer:

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Kattabomman took an expedition to Sivagiri to influence to join Marudhu brothers.

Reason (R): Palayakkarars of Sivagiri was a tributory to the company of the British. They refuse to join.

(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A is correct and R is Wrong

(c) A is wrong ans R is correct

(d) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.

Answer:

(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Chinna Marudhu collected 20,000 men to challenge the English army and many Palayakkarars joined, but failed.

Reason (R): Divide and Rule Policy of the British split the forces of the Palayakkarars.

(a) A is correct R is wrong

(b) A is wrong and R is correct

(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Answer:

(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The Nawab of Arcot gave the power of collecting revenue to the English East India company from southern Palayakkarars.

Reason (R): The company branded the defiant Palayakkarars as rebels.

(a) A is correct R is wrong

(b) A is wrong R is correct

(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.

(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation to A.

Answer:

(a) A is correct R is wrong

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.

2

Answer:

A. (iii)

B. (v)

C. (iv)

D. (i)

E. (ii)

Question 2.

Match the Column I with Column II.

3

Answer:

A. (iv)

B. (i)

C. (v)

D. (ii)

E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.

Write a note on Carnatic treaty.

Answer:

The suppression of the Palayakkarar rebellions of 1799 and 1800-1801 resulted in the liquidation of all the local chieftains of Tamil Nadu. Under the terms of the Carnatic treaty of 31 July 1801. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakarar system to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 2.

Why was the Revenue collection of the southern Palayakkarars was given to the company Rule?

Answer:

Nawab of Arcot had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the camatic wars.

When the debts exceeded his capacity to pay, he gave the Revenue Collection Authority to the company rule.

Question 3.

Write a note on Hyder Ali.

Answer:

Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore. He was a bitter enemy of England. He was born in 1772. Though he started his career as a soldier, he rose to the position of commander-in-chief. In 1766, when the Raja of Mysore died, Hyder Ali proclaimed himself as the ruler and became the Sultan of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was the son of Hyder Ali.

Question 4.

Name the three major ports of Puli Thevar. When did these forts come under the control of Yusuf Khan?

Answer:

The three major ports of Puli Thevar were Nerkattumseval, Vasudevanallur and Panayur. In 16th May 1761 they came under the control of Yusufkhan.

Question 5.

What does the word ‘Palayam’ mean? What does the Palayakkarar in Tamil refer to?

Answer:

The word ‘Palayam’ means a domain, military camp, or a little kingdom. The Palayakkarar in Tamil refers to the holder of a little Kingdom as a feudatory to a greater sovereign.

Question 6.

Write about the brave act of Kuyili the friend of Velunachiyar.

Answer:

Kiyili was a faithful friend of velunachiyar.

She led the unit of women soldiers.

Kuyili is said to have walked in to the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire, destroying all the ammunition.

Question 7.

Why did the Nawab of Arcot borrow money from the East India company? What happened when his debts exceeded his capacity to pay?

Answer:

The Nawab of Arcot borrowed money from the East India company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars. When his debts exceeded his capacity to pay, the power of collecting the land revenue dues from southern Palayakkarars was given to the East India company.

Question 8.

How the Rebellion of Marudhu brothers referred as and who participated in the rebellion?

Answer:

In the British records the rebellion of Marudhu brothers (1800) is referred as the “Second Palayakkarar war”.

Those who participated in the Rebellion were: Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai, Gopala Nayak of a Dindigul, Kerala verma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaj i of Mysore.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.

Siege of Panchalamkuruchi

(a) Why did Lord Wellesley issue orders in May 1799?

Answer:

Lord Wellesley issued orders in May 1799 for the advance of forces from Tiruchirapalli, Thanjavur, and Madurai to Tirunelveli.

(b) Who commanded the troops?

Answer:

Major Bannerman commanded the troops.

(c) What commanded the troops?

Answer:

On 1st September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) Why did Bannerman depute Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort?

Answer:

Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort so that he could convey a message asking him (Kattabomman) to surrender.

Question 2.

Consequences of Vellore Revolt

(a) Where was Tipu’s sons imprisoned after the revolt?

Answer:

Tipu’s sons were sent to Calcutta after the revolt.

(b) What was the reward given to the people who suppressed the revolt?

Answer:

Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas. The officers and men engaged in the suppression were rewarded with prize money and promotion.

(c) Name the English Generals who were removed from their office?

Answer:

Col. Sir John Cradock, Adjutant General Agnew and Governor William Bentinck were removed from their office.

(d) What was withdrawn after the revolt?

Answer:

The military regulations were withdrawn after the revolt.

Question 3.

New Military Regulations

(a) What were the Indian soldiers asked to do according to new’ military regulation?

Answer:

According to the new military regulation the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked.

(b) How did the new turban add fuel to fire?

Answer:

The new turban was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

(c) How did the sepoys react to the new turban?

Answer:

The sepoys refused to wear the new turban.

(d) What was the Company’s reaction?

Answer:

The company remained silent. It did not pay any notice to the sepoys grievances.

Question 4.

The Seige of Panchalamkurichi

(a) From which regions forces were sent to Tirunelveli?

Answer:

From the regions of Tiruchirappali, Thanjavur and Madurai sent to Tirunelveli.

(b) Which troops joined the British later?

Answer:

The Travancore troops joined the British later.

(c) What was served on Kattabomman and for what purpose?

Answer:

An ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) What was the response of Kattabomman?

Answer:

Kattabomman refused to surrender.

Question 5.

Proclamation of 1801

(a) Who issued the proclamation of 1801?

Answer:

Marudhu pandiyar issued the proclamation of Independence 1801.

(b) Why did they issue the proclamation?

Answer:

The proclamation was an early call to the Indians to unite.

(c) Where was the copies of proclamation pasted?

Answer:

The proclamation was pasted on the walls of Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of Srirangam temple.

(d) From where did the forces reinforced to fight with the revolters?

Answer:

British reinforcements were rushed from Bengal, Ceylon and Malaya.

Question 6.

Grievances of Indian Soldiers

(a) Who deliberate on the future course of action against the company Government?

Answer:

The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains.

(b) What was the culmination of the Palayakkarar wars?

Answer:

The Vellore Revolt of 1806

(c) What were the resentment of British Indian army?

Answer:

The British Indian army had a strong resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

(d) What bothered the Indian sepoys much?

Answer:

The new recruitment of the sepoys to the army.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny.

Answer:

The British administration prohibited the Hindu soldiers from smearing religious marks on their foreheads.

They ordered the Muslims to shave their beard and trim their moustache.

This created a strong resentment among the soldiers.

Instigated by the sons of Tipu, the revolting soldiers gathered in the Vellore fort, under the pretext of a marriage function.

At midnight the soldiers surrounded the fort and killed most of the Europeans.

They unfurled the flag of Tipu over the fort.

Fateh Hyder, the second Son of Tipu was declared as the ruler.

But the revolt was crushed by the British.

Question 2.

How did Velunachiyar able to get back her territory (Sivagangai)?

Answer:

Velunachiyar during her period of hiding organised an army.

She succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar (Virupachi near Dindigul) but Hyder Ali as well.

She was affluent in Urdu. Velunachiyar explained in detail in urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.

She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English.

Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigal fort to provide the necessary military assistance.

Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored ammunition.

With military assistance from Gbpala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.

She was crowned as queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.

She was the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Question 3.

Write about the Dindigul League.

Answer:

The famous Dindigul league was headed by Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of virupachi.

He formed the league with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and poojai Nayak of Devadanapatti.

He drew the inspiration from Tipu Sultan, who sent a deputation to show his camaraderie.

He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined Oomaidurai, Kattabomman’s brother.

He put up a fierce fight at Aanamalai hills.

The local peasants gave him full support.

But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in 1801.

Question 4.

Give an account of Marudhu brothers Rebellion of 1800.

Answer:

Despite the suppression of Kattabomman’s revolt in 1799 rebellion broke out again in 1800.

In the British records it is referred to as the second Palayakkarar war.

In April 1800 the confederacy consisting of Marudhu Pandiyars of Sivagangai, GopalaNayak of Dindigul, Kerala verma of malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore met at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the company.

The Uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to Ramanathapuram and Madurai.

The company got wind of it and declared war on Krishnappa Nayak of Mysore, Kerala Verma of Malabar and others.

The Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam, and Tarapuram were caught and hanged.

In February 1801, the two brothers of Kattabomman, Oomathurai and Sevathaiah escaped from Palayamkottai prison and Chinna Marudhu took them to Siruvayal his capital.

The English demanded the Marudhu Pandiyars to hand over fugitives but they refused.

Col.Agnew and Col.Innes marched on Sivagangai.

In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of independence the Tiruchirappalli proclamation.

The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.



Important questions

Q.1. Fill in the blanks. 👈 Click here

Q.2. Prove the following statement. 👈 Click here

Q.3. Mark the correct answers.  👈 Click here

Q.4. Answer the following (any 4) 👈 Click here

Q.5. Write short notes. 👈 Click here

Extra questions and answers.

Q.6. True or False. 👈 Click here

Q.7. Distinguish between. 👈 Click here

Q.8. MCQ. 👈 Click here

Q.9. Answer the following. 👈 Click here

Q.10. Give Scientific Reasons. 👈 Click here


Q.5. Write short notes.

  1. Planets do not twinkle?
  2. Explain the concept of Rainbow?

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