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Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, History, Book, Solutions, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Guide, Geography, Chapter 7, Human Geography of Tamil Nadu,

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta


Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets


Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%


Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur


Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
  2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
  3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
  4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
  5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

  1. 21%
  2. Then Pennai
  3. second
  4. Chennai
  5. balance of trade

III. Match the following


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 1
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)


IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

  1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
  2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
  3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
  4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
  5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
  6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
  7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
  8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
  9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.


VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

  1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
  2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
  3. Large mechanised boats are used.
  4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

  1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
  2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
  3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
  4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

  1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
  2. From the major source of regular diet.
  3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

  1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
  2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
  3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water
:

  1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
  2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
  3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
  4. Not reliable
  5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

  1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
  2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
  3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
  4. Reliable sources of water.
  5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:

To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:

Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:

During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.


VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

  • Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
  • Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
  • Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
  • Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
  • The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
  • It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
  • Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
  • Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
  • Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
  • Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
  • Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
  • Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

  1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
  2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
  3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
  4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
    Tiruvallur – 1049
    Kancheepuram – 927
    Madurai – 823
    Coimbatore – 748
    Cuddalore – 702
    Thanjavur – 691
    Nagapattinam – 668
    Salem – 663
    Vellore – 646
    Tiruchirappalli – 602
    These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

Road ways:

  1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
  2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

  1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
  2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
  3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
  4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

  1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
  2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
  3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

  1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
  2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

  1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
  2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
  3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
  4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
  5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

  • Aware of the road signals
  • Stop, look and cross
  • Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
  • Don’t rush on roads
  • Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
  • Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
  • Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

  1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
  2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
  3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
  4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
  5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
  6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
  7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 4

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.


(c) Dams:


(d) Seaports and airports:


I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
  2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
  3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
  4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
  5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
  6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
  7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
  8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
  9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
  10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
  11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
  12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
  13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
  14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
  15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
  16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
  17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
  18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
  19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
  20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
  21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
  22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
  23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
  24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
  25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
  26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
  27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
  28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
  29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
  30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
  31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
  32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
  33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
  34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
  35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
  36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
  37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
  38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
  39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
  40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

  1. human beings
  2. Agriculture
  3. North-East monsoon
  4. Navarai
  5. 2023
  6. Aavin
  7. goat rearing
  8. off-shore fishing
  9. little – Brindavan
  10. Ottanchatram
  11. 900
  12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
  13. Industries
  14. Ramanathapuram
  15. Vellore
  16. 37
  17. Kagithapuram
  18. Temple Jewellery
  19. mats
  20. Tamil Nadu
  21. 35%
  22. handloom sector
  23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
  24. Population
  25. Moderate
  26. The Nilgiri
  27. Sex – Ration
  28. Port
  29. Madurai to Nattham
  30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
  31. Chief Minister
  32. reduction of risks
  33. Ore
  34. Literates
  35. Reservoirs
  36. Demography
  37. Demographers
  38. Over population
  39. Sheep
  40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 9
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)


IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.

Answer:


Farming Type:

  1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
  2. Plantation agriculture
  3. Mixed farming

Regions:

  1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
  2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
  3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

  1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
  2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

  1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
  2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

  • Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
  • Cotton thrives well in black soil.
  • It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
  • It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

  1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
  2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
  3. It promotes export earnings.
  4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

  1. A tradition industry.
  2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
  3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

  1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
  2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.


VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

  1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
  2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
  3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

  1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
  2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
  3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

  1. Mostly food crops are grown.
  2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
  3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
  4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

  1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
  2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
  3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
  4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

  1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
  2. Local currency is involved.
  3. Improves the internal economy.
  4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

  1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
  2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
  3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
  4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

  1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
  2. It may be natural or artificial.
  3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

  1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
  2. It is man made feature.
  3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

  1. Communication is only between two persons.
  2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
  3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

  1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
  2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
  3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

  1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
  2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

  1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
  2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
  3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

  1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
  2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
  3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

  1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
  2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.


VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:

Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

  1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
  2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

  • Accident
  • Negligence or
  • Incompetence
  • Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

  • Overheating
  • Aging of materials
  • Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

  • Explosions
  • Leaking of poisonous gases
  • Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

  • Creating awareness
  • Promoting organic fertilizers
  • Training
  • Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

  • agro-waste compost production units.
  • bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
  • development and implementation of quality control regime.
  • human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:

The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

  1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
  2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
  3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
  4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil
Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
  2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
  3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
  4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
  5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
  6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
  7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
  8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 13
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 14
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu 15

Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, History, Book, Solutions, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Guide, Geography, Chapter 6, Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu,

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E
(b) 76° 18′ W to 80°20′ W
(c) 86°18’Eto 10°20’E
(d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′ W
Answer:
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E

Question 3.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayan
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 4.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 5.
Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 6.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 7.
The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is:
(a) 20.21%
(b) 20.31%
(c) 21.20%
(d) 21.30%
Answer:
(a) 20.21%

Question 8.
Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from …………….
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 9.
hich of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ………………
  2. ……………… is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
  3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ……………… and ……………… branches of cauvery.
  4. ……………… soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
  5. ……………… is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in ………………

Answers:

  1. Coimbatore
  2. Solaikaradu
  3. Northern (Coleroon or Kollidam), and Southern (Cauvery)
  4. Laterite
  5. Nilgiri Tahir, Western Ghats, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

III. Match the following


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 1

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)


IV. Assertion type Question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides.
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east, Indian ocean in the South, Kerala and Karnataka in the west and Andhra Pradesh on the North.

Question 2.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Answer:

  • Districts of Tamil Nadu Partly / fully located on Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
  • Districts on Eastern Ghats: Vellore, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Nammakal, Trichirapalli, Perambalur.
  • Districts on Western Ghats: Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Dindigul, Virudhunagar.

Question 3.
What is ‘Teri??
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 4.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
Coastal plains is formed by die rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu. It is more than 80 kilometers wide at some places.

Question 5.
Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar, and Ramanathi are the main Tributaries of Thamirabarani.

Question 7.
Define Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including through reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 8.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the . fishermen?
Answer:
During Cyclone the Meterological Department warn the fishermen through State Government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Regional (Doordharshan) telecast programme. During Cyclone four stages of warning are given by the Meteorological Department to keep the fishermen alert and to return back who ventured into the sea through coast guards also.


VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

  1. Western Ghats extends from the Nilgiris in the North to Marunthuvazh malai at Swamithope in Kanyakumari in the South.
  2. It is a continuous range.
  3. Doddabetta (in the Nilgiris) is the highest peak.
  4. It’s height ranges from 2000mts to 3000 mts above sea level.
  5. Important hills are Nilgiris, Anaimalai and palani hills etc.

Eastern Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

  1. Major hills of the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu are located in the Northern districts of the State.
  2. It is discontinuous dissected at many places by the east flowing rivers.
  3. Solaikaradu in the Servarayan hills is the highest peak.
  4. It’s height ranges from 1,100 mts to 1600 mts above sea level.
  5. Javadhu, Kalvarayan and Servarayan etc are some of the major hills.

Question 2.
Southwest monsoon and Northeast monsoon.
Answer:
Southwest Monsoon:

  1. Period of Southwest monsoon is from March to May.
  2. Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind hence gets only less rainfall.
  3. Rainfall decreases from West to East,
  4. CoimbatorePlateau,Kanyakumari and Tirunelveli districts receives 50 – 100 cm rainfall during this period.

Northeast Monsoon:

  1. Period of Northeast Monsoon is from October and lasts till mid – December.
  2. 48% of annual rainfall to Tamil Nadu is from this wind.
  3. It is the rainy season for the districts of Tamil Nadu.
  4. Coastal districts get nearly 60% of annual rainfall and interior districts get 40 – 50 cm rainfall.

Question 3.
Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen Forests:

  1. This types of forest is found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
  2. It is dense, multilayered forest.
  3. The major type of trees found in the forests are Cinnamon, Malabar ironwood kindal, jamun etc.
  4. It is found in the upper slopes of Western Ghats of Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Nilgiris and Coimbatore districts.

Tropical Deciduous Forests:

  1. It is found in the regions of sub tropical climate with moderate rainfall.
  2. The trees in this forest shed their leaves during dry season.
  3. The major trees are kapok, kadamba, axle wood, bamboo, dog- teak, silk cotton etc some trees are economically important.
  4. It is found in the margin of semi evergreen and evergreen forests – Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai Eastern Ghats.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous and irregular one. It is dissected at many places by the rivers, which drain into the Bay of Bengal. Its height ranges from 1,100 to 1,600 metres.

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind which blows from the Arabian sea. As a result Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.

Question 3.
Alluvial soil is fertile.
Answer:
Alluvial soil are formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers. Alluvial soils are generally fertile as they are rich in minerals such as lime, potassium, magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. It is deficient in nitrogen and humus. It is porous and loamy.

Question 4.
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Answer:
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone, because it is located under the very high cyclone prone zone and flood prone zone. More over it is an coastal area often affected by the vulnerable natural disasters.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  • Plateau of Tamil Nadu is located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
  • It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km.
  • Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
  • This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
  • Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
  • Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
  • Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
  • Madurai plateau found in Madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 2.
Write an account on river Kaveri.
Answer:
Origin of River Kaveri: The river Kaverioriginates in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 k.m.

Length of its course in Tamil Nadu: 416 km

Upper course: It enters into Tamil Nadu in the form of Hogenakkal falls in Dharmapuri district. Mettur Dam (Stanely Reservoir) is built across the river in Salem District. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.

Middle course: Then it takes easterly direction to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu.

  1. At Thirumukkudal 10 km from Karur, two more tributaries Noyyal and Amaravathi confluence the river on the right bank. In this region the river is wider and called ‘Agandra Cauvery’.
  2. In Tiruchirappalli the river branches into two. The Northern branch is called Coleroon or Kollidam and the Southern branch remains Cauvery. After flowing for about 16 km, the two branches join again to form the ‘Srirangam Island’.
  3. The Grand Anaicut, called as Kallanai was built across the river Cauvery. The deltaic stage begins in the middle course.

Lower course: After Kallanai the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. River Cauvery merges into Bay of Bengal to the South of Cuddalore.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu. Summer Seasons:
Answer:
The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May result in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer experiences high temperature. Generally, the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C. During this season particularly in the month of May, the southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:
During January’ and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally. Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 4.
What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  1. The process by which fertile land becomes desert due to inappropriate agriculture, deforestation, and drought is termed as desertification. It is a type of land degradation which lead to the extension of desert area.
  2. In Tamil Nadu Theni, the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari are the worst affected districts by desertification.
  3. About 12,000 hectares (120sq. km) were affected by sand deposition in Theni and Rajapalayam.

Question 5.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
According to their characteristics, soils of Tamil Nadu are classified into five types.

Soil TypesDistribution
Alluvial soilRiver valley regions and coastal plains – Thanjavur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore, Villupuram, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.
Black soilSemi arid regions – Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
Red soilCover two-third areas ofTamil Nadu – particularly in the central district and mainly in Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soilIntense leaching areas – parts of Kanchipuram, Thiruvallur and Thanjavur, patches over the mountainous region in the Nilgiris.
Saline soilConfined to the Coromandel coast – Vedaranyam.

Question 6.
Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do before, during and after landslides?
Answer:
Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu is identified as one of the most vulnerable districts in the country and landslides pose a major threat in this area. The other regions which are prone to land slides are Coimbatore and palani hill of Dindigul district where Kodaikanal hill station is located.

Before: Create awareness; stay alert and awake; monitor the news updates; make evacuation plan; listen for any unusual sounds that might indicate moving debris such as trees cracking, boulders knocking and consider leaving the place of landslide if it is safe to do so.

After: Stay away from the slide area; listen to local radio or television stations for the latest emergency information; watch for flooding, which may occur after a landslide or debris flow; check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area.


IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark important rivers, distribution of soil and forest types on different Tamil Nadu maps.

(a) Important rivers:

  1. Cauvery
  2. Palar
  3. Then Pennaiyar / Ponnaiyar
  4. Vaigai
  5. Thamirabarani.

Other rivers:

  1. Coleroon or Kollidam
  2. Amaravathi
  3. Bhavani
  4. Noyyal
  5. Cheyyar.

(b) Distribution of soil

SoilAreas
AlluvialThiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari and Cauvery Delta.
Black soilCoimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.
Red soilSivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soilKancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Nilgiris.
Saline soilCoromandel coast, Vedaranyam coast.

img 3

(c) Forest type (Natural vegetation)

  1. Tropical evergreen forest: Slopes of Western Ghats Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari.
  2. Temperature forest: Anaimalai, Palani hills.
  3. Tropical deciduous forest: Eastern Ghats, Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai.
  4. Mangrove forest: Cuddalore, Chidambaram,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 34

TB. PNo: 85
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Question 1.
Name the first state of India created on linguistic basis.
Answer:

  1. Andhra Pradesh was the first State of India created on linguistic basis.
  2. Bifurcated from Madras Presidency the Telugu speaking area – Andhra Pradesh on October – 1st, 1953.

Question 2.
Why was the capital of Tamil Nadu renamed?
Answer:
After India got independence in 1947, the city became the capital of Madras state, which was renamed as Tamil Nadu on 1969. On 17 July 1996 the city known as Madras was officially renamed as Chennai.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word Chennai
Answer:
Face of the city.


TB. PNo: 86
Activity

Question 1.
Find out the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu with the help of a map.
Answer:
13 Districts – Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kaneheepuram, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari are the coastal districts.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala separately.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh – Krishnagiri, Vellore and Tiruvallur.
Karnataka – Krishanagiri. Dharmapuri, Erode, Nilgiris.
Kerala – Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Theni, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Virudhunagar.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 5

TB. PNo: 90
Find Out

Question 1.
Why are mountain heights measured from mean sea level and not from ground level?
Answer:
(i) Ocean is one continuous water body on the earth’s surface. Its surface tend to seek the same level whatever be the landform around.
(ii) It is difficult to establish the base of the mountain from the rest of the ground around as their elevation is not the same on all sides.

Question 2.
Name the hill resorts of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Hill resorts of Western Ghats: Nilgiri hills, Anaimalai, Yelamalai, Varusanadu and Pothigai hills, Megamalai.
Hill resorts of Eastern Ghats: Servarayan hills, Kalvarayan hills, Pachaimalai and Kolli hills.

Question 3.
Is Ooty located on western Ghats?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 4.
Name the hill stations located in Western and Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu. Western Ghats:
Answer:
Ooty and coonoor – Nilgiri hills Valparai – Anaimalai hills Kodaikanal -Palani hills Kurangani -Kurangani hills (Theni)
Eastern Ghats:
Yercaud – Servarayan hills

Question 5.
Why is the Nilgiri hills called as Blue Mountains?
Answer:
Nilgiri hills are called as Blue Mountains, inspired by the Kurunji flower which blooms every twelve years giving the slopes a bluish tinge.


TB. PNo: 94
Find Out

Question 1.
What is Agni Nakshatram?
Answer:
Agni Nakshatram period marks the onset of summer season in the month of May – June a period of 21 days. Peak summer with very high temperature, scorching heat all over parts of India.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu into low, moderate and heavy rainfall regions.
Answer:


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Initially after bifurcation in Madras State there were only ………………. districts.
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 13

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the ……………. part of India.
(a) Northeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Southeast
Answer:
(c) Southeast

Question 3.
Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates Tamil Nadu from :
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Lakshadweep Island
(c) Nepal
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(d) Srilanka

Question 4.
…………… hill is located in Eastern Ghats.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Kalrayan
(c) Palani
Answer:
(b) Kalrayan

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu has Loksabha constituencies.
(a) 19
(b) 92
(c) 39
(4)21
Answer:
(c) 39

Question 6.
Mukuruthi is a peak located in the …………….
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Nilgiri Hills
(c) Palani Hills
Answer:
(b) Nilgiri Hills

Question 7.
The highest peak in Palani hills is :
(a) Vembadi Shola
(b) Vandaravu
(c) Doddabetta
(d) Ooty
Answer:
(b) Vandaravu

Question 8.
Mangrove forests are found in …………….
(a) Vedaranyam
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
Answer:
(a) Vedaranyam

Question 9.
………………. hills separate Vellore and Tiruvanamalai districts.
(a) Kolli
(b) Andipatti
(c) Pothigai
(d) Javadhu
Answer:
(d) Javadhu

Question 10.
…………. hills seperates Vellore and Thiruvanamali districts.
(a) Pothigai
(b) Andipatti
(c) Javadhu
Answer:
(c) Javadhu

Question 11.
Bharamahal Plateau is a part of ………………. Plateau.
(a) Mysore
(b) Chota Nagpur
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Mysore

Question 12.
……………. helps in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and stroms.
(a) Mangroves
(b) trees
(c) Land slide
Answer:
(a) Mangroves

Question 13.
………………. is one of the main tributary of Thamirabarani.
(a) Noyyal
(b) Amaravathi
(c) Moyar
(d) Manimuthar
Answer:
(d) Manimuthar

Question 14.
Tamil Nadu depends mostly on ……………… monsoon.
(a) South west
(b) Northeast
(c) Cyclone
Answer:
(b) Northeast

Question 15.
About ………………… % of the total area of the Tamil Nadu is drought prone.
(a) 26
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 46
Answer:
(c) 64


II. Fill in the blanks

  1. ………………. is the branch of geography that deals with different physical aspects like landform soil etc.
  2. For a short time Tamil country was ruled by the ………………. not much known.
  3. Tamil Nadu coast is the second longest in India after ……………….
  4. Kallakurichi, Thenkasi and ………………. are the newly formed districts of Tamil Nadu.
  5. Our state has ………………. Assembly Constituencies.
  6. All districts of Tamil Nadu except the ………………. the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari were bifurcated at different points of time.
  7. The Nilgiri hills consists ………………. peaks with more than 2000 metres.
  8. ………………. hills are located to the South of Palghat gap.
  9. ISRO propulsion complex is situated on the lower slopes of ……………….
  10. Vainu Bappu Observatory is in ……………….
  11. The Kalvarayan hills separates the river basins of ……………….
  12. The name Kalvarayan came from the name of ancient tribes.
  13. ………………. temple an important pilgrim centre is located on Kolli hills range.
  14. ………………. river separates Coimbatore plateau and Mysore plateau.
  15. ………………. is one of the intermontane plateau found in the region of Nilgiri hills.
  16. ………………. are found at the head of Gulf of Mannar in the East Coastal regions.
  17. The Reservoir of ………………. is called Stanely Reservoir.
  18. The network of distributaries of River Cauvery is called ……………….
  19. Palar river enters into Bay of Bengal near ……………….
  20. The origin of Thamirabarani river is associated with sage ……………….
  21. Pre monsoon showers are also known as ………………. showers.
  22. Black soil is also known as ……………….
  23. ………………. reduces the fertility of the soil.
  24. Trees of ………………. forests are economically important.
  25. ………………. is the second largest Mangrove forest in the world found in Tamil Nadu.
  26. Koonthankulam bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
  27. Pulicat lake bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
  28. A sudden natural catastrophe that causes great damage or less to lives and properties is called ……………….
  29. The number of Municipal Corporations in Tamil Nadu is ……………….
  30. Ancient Gondwana land broke away 135 years ago during ………………. period.
  31. ………………. hills are the eastward extension of Western Ghats.
  32. Coastal plains of Tamil Nadu extend from ………………. to ……………….
  33. The ………………. coast along the Bay of Bengal consists of many beautiful exotic beaches.
  34. ………………. of Tamil Nadu are its life line.
  35. Except ………………. river all the other rivers of Tamil Nadu state are non – perennial.
  36. Palar river originates beyond ………………. village in Kolar district of Karnataka.
  37. The ………………. river is extensively dammed for irrigation especially in Tamil Nadu.
  38. The surplus water in Vaigia river is discharged into ………………. tank.
  39. The colour of the Red soil is due to the presence of high content of ……………….
  40. ………………. soil is suitable for tea and coffee plants.
  41. The systematic efforts taken to reduce the risks during disasters is ……………….
  42. Water is the most common trigger of a ……………….
  43. Tamil nadu was the worst affected state by the flood occured in ……………….

Answers:

  1. Physical geography
  2. Kalabras
  3. Gujarat
  4. Chengalpet
  5. 234
  6. Chennai
  7. 24
  8. Anaimalai
  9. Mahendragiri hills
  10. Kavalur
  11. Cauvery and Palar
  12. Karalar
  13. Arapaleeswarar
  14. Moyar
  15. Slgur
  16. Coral rocks
  17. Mettur Dam
  18. Garden of Southern India
  19. Kuvattur
  20. Agasthiyar
  21. Mango I Blossm
  22. Regur soil
  23. Soll erosion
  24. Tropical Deciduous forest
  25. Pichavaram mangrove forest
  26. Tirunelveli
  27. Trruvallur
  28. Disaster
  29. 15
  30. cretaceous
  31. Palam
  32. Chennai, Kanyakumari
  33. Coromandel Coast
  34. Rivers
  35. Tharnirabarani
  36. Talagavara
  37. Then pennaiyar/ Then ponnaiyar
  38. Ramnad big tank
  39. Iron Oxides
  40. Laterite
  41. Disaster Risk Reduction
  42. landslide
  43. 2015

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 7
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 77

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 9

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 10

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu 11

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)


IV. Assertion type question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu state was reorganised several times even recently.
Reason (R): For the purpose of administrative convenience.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but R does not explain (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but(R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pothigai hills are called by different names.
Reason (R): It has rich evergreen forest, waterfalls and Ancient temples.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Yercaud is known as poor man’s Ooty.
Reason (R): It is on the Kolli hills.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false
(b) (A) is false (A) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) (A) is true (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu experiences mild tremor.
Reason(R): The state is located in the moderately low risk seismic zone.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).


V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you know about the land features of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has many unique land features that include high eroded mountains. Shallow deep valleys and plains. The topography of the State slopes towards east.

Question 2.
Mention the Latitudinal and Longitudial extent of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu extends 8° 4′ N to 13° 35′ N latitudes and from 76° 18′ E to 80° 20′ E longitudes.

Question 3.
Name the hills of Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Nilgiris, Anaimalai, Palani hills, Cardomom hills, Varusanadu, Andipatti and Agasthiyar hills.

Question 4.
Name the major physical divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  • Western Ghats
  • Eastern Ghats
  • Plateaues
  • Coastal plains and
  • Inland plains

Question 5.
What are the other names of Pothigai hills?
Answer:
Pothigai hills are called by different names such as Shiva Jothi Parvath, Agasthiyar hills and Southern Kailash.

Question 6.
Name the rivers that flow in the South Of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

  • Vaigai (Madurai)
  • Vaippar (Virudhunagar)
  • Thamirabarani (Thirunelveli)
  • Kodaiyar (Kanyakumari) flows in the south of Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Coriolis Force?
Answer:
‘Coriolis Force” refers to the apparent force acts as a result of the earth’s rotation deflects the moving objects (such as projectiles or air currents) to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere. It is one of the main reason for the movement of the monsoon winds originates from the Indian Ocean.

Question 8.
Define Soil.
Answer:

  • Soil is a loose material
  • It forms the uppermost layer of the earth.
  • It is essential for the development of agriculture.

Question 9.
Define soil and its significance.
Answer:
Soil is the loose material mainly formed by the weathering and erosion rocks. It forms an important elements of agriculture. It provides essential minerals and nutrients for the growth vegetation.

Question 10.
Bring out the significance of Kallanai in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  1. Kallanai built around first century, by Karikalan is still in use.
  2. It is considered to be the oldest water regulatory structure in the world.

Question 11.
What are all major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation?
Answer:
Landforms, nature of the soil, temperature, rainfall and skspe of the relief features are the major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation.

Question 12.
What is the role played by the mangroves in coastal zone management?
Answer:

  1. Mangroves help in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and storms.
  2. It also protects coral reefs and sea grass meadows from being smothered in sediments.

Question 13.
Where the mangrove forests are found in general?
Answer:
In general the mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas, river deltas, tails of islands and over sea faces where accretion is in progress.

Question 14.
Name the places in Tamil Nadu where mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.
Answer:
Pichavaram, Vedaranyam, Muthupet, Chatram and Thoothukudi are the places in Tamil Nadu where the mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.

Question 15.
Name the three major Biosphere reservation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The three major Bio – sphere Reservation in Tamil Nadu are:

  1. Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve
  2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (marine)
  3. Agasthiyarmalai Biosphere Reserve

Question 16.
What does Disaster Risk Reduction include?
Answer:
The Disaster Risk Reduction includes:

  1. Reducing exposure to hazards.
  2. Lessening the vulnerability of people and property.
  3. Wise management of land and environment.
  4. Improving preparedness and early warning for adverse events.

Question 17.
How does the Government classify the ground water blocks?
Answer:

  1. 145 out of 385 are classified as safe ground water blocks.
  2. The others are in various stages of depletion such as over exploited, critical and semi-critical.
  3. 2% of the blocks are saline and 64% of total area of the state is drought probe.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Distinguish between the plains and plateaus of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Plains:

  1. Plains of Tamil Nadu is divided into Inland plains and Coastal Plains.
  2. Inland plains are formed by the rivers of Tamil Nadu coastal plains are formed along the Bay of Bengal coast by the lower course of the river.
  3. Height increases from West to East.
  4. It covers the districts of Salem, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur and Nagapattinam.

Plateaus:

  1. Plateaus are subdivided into three – Dharmapuri plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau.
  2. Plateaus are oldest region formed by the disintegration of lava rocks and they are located between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
  3. Height increases from East to West.
  4. Dharmapuri, Krishnagiri, Coimbatore, Nilgiris, Salem and Madurai are the districts lie in the plateau region.

Question 2.
Summer season and winter season in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Summer season:

  1. Period of summer season begins from March – May.
  2. Much variation in summer temperature increases from South to North (30°C – 40°C).
  3. Pre monsoon showers and convection rainfall occurs in this season.

Winter season:

  1. Period of winter season is from January – February.
  2. Not much difference in winter temperature (15°C – 25°C).
  3. Generally this season is dry.

Question 3.
Black soil and Alluvial soil.
Answer:
Black soil:

  1. Its formation is by weathering of igneous rocks.
  2. Clayey in nature when wet develop cracks when dry.
  3. Cotton grows well in this soil.
  4. It is developed over the Deccan lava granite region under semi arid condition.
  5. Found in the districts of Coimbatore, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Virudhunagar.

Alluvial soil:

  1. Formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers.
  2. Fertile in nature as they are rich in minerals.
  3. Paddy and sugar cane grows well in this soil.
  4. It is found in the river valley regions and the coastal planis.
  5. Found in the districts of Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore.

Question 4.
Montane Temperature forest and Tropical Thorn forest.
Answer:
Montane Temperature Forest:

  1. Found over an altitude of 1000 mts in sheltered valleys of Anaimalai, Nilgiris and Palani hills.
  2. Trees in these forest are evergreen and usually short.
  3. Nilgiri champa, wights litsea and rose apple are the common trees.

Tropical Thom Forest:

  1. Found where there is little rainfall from plains up to 400 mts altitude.
  2. Trees are sturdy and withstand dry condition. Shmbs are common.
  3. Palm, neem, rusty acacia, wheel are some of the varieties.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Black soil is also known as Black cotton soil.
Answer:

  1. Black soil retails moisture which is very essential for yarning of thread.
  2. As cotton grows well in this soil, it is also known as black cotton soil.

Question 2.
It is necessary to conserve the soil resources with intensive care.
Answer:

  1. Soil forms the basis mainly for agriculture and other purposes. It is a non-renewable resource and difficult to replace it once it gets degraded.
  2. Soil erosion reduces the fertility of the soil which in turn reduces agricultural productivity. So it is necessary to take intensive care to conserve the soil resources.

Question 3.
It is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.
Answer:
The alteration of natural environment by the technology and developmental activities increase the frequency of disaster all over the world. So it is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.

Question 4.
Tamil Nadu Government has banned trekking in the state for two months every year (Feb -15 to April 15).
Answer:

  1. The high temperature during summer leads to occasional forest fire in deciduous and thorn forests in Tamil Nadu.
  2. 23 people were killed as they were stuck in the forest fire at Kurangani hills while trekking. On March 11th, 2018.
  3. Thus in the aftermath of this incident made the Tamil Nadu Government to ban trekking for two months during peak summer.

Question 5.
Always avoid roads and bridge during earthquake.
Answer:
Roads may develop crack and bridges may collapse and damaged by the earthquake so we should be causious.

Question 6.
Cardamom hills are also known as Yelamala.
Answer:
The hill acquires its name from the cardamom spice, which is commonly grown here.


VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the location and size of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Location: Tamil Nadu is located in the Southern most part of the country. It is one among the 29 states of India.

Extent: Latitudinally this land mass extends from 8°4’N to 13°35’N and longitudinally from 76°18’E to 80°20’E longitudes.

Extremities: Its Eastern and Western extremities are defined by the point calimere and the hills of Anaimalai respectively.

The Northern extremity of the state is Pulicate lake and the Southern most point is Cape Comorin.

Area: It covers an area of 1,30,058 sq.km covering 4% of the area of our country.

Size: It is the 11th largest state.

Question 2.
Tabulate the administrative Divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The administrative divisions of the Tamil Nadu state are given under.

DivisionNumber
Districts35 (32 + 3)
Revenue Divisions76
Taluks226
Firkas (Local Revenue Sub-divisions)1,127
Revenue villages16,564
Municipal Corporation15
Municipalities125
Panchayat Unions (Blocks)385
Town Panchayats561
Village Panchayats12,618
Lok Sabha Constituencies39
Assembly Constituencies234

Question 3.
What are the users of forests?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu’s wealth of flora and fauna lies in the hilly and forest regions.

  1. Forests are the sanctuaries for wild animals.
  2. It provides valuable forest products like Cinchona, Eucalyptus, which are used as medicine for cold, malaria and as a pain reliever.
  3. Palmyrah trees are useful for construction works.
  4. Forest products are used as raw materials for several cottage industries.
  5. Sandalwood is useful for making furniture.
  6. These forests not only provide for the large economy of the state but also to the local livelihood.

Question 4.
Give an account of the River Thamirabarani.
Answer:

  1. The name is interpreted as Thamiram (copper) Varuni (streams of river).
  2. The water of this river gives a copper like appearance due to the presence of dissolved red soil.
  3. The river originates from a peak in Pothigai hills on the Western Ghats above Papanasam in the Ambasamudram taluk, (only river originates in Tamil Nadu).
  4. The origin of the river is associated with Sage Agasthiyar.
  5. It courses through the districts of Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
  6. It flows into Bay of Bengal near Punnaikayal in Thoothukudi district.
    Tributaries: Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi.
  7. It is the only Perennial river of Tamil Nadu as it is fed by both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.

Question 5.
Write about Pichavaram mangrove forest.
Answer:

  1. Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near Chidambaram, Cuddalore district.
  2. This is the second largest mangrove forest in the world covering about 1,100 hectares (11 sq.km) of area.
  3. It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by a sandbar.
  4. It consists of species like Avicennia and Rhizophora.
  5. It also supports the existence of rare varieties of shell and fin fishes.

Question 6.
Name any five wild life (Animal) sanctuaries and Bird Sancturies in Tamil Nadu and their location.
Answer:

S.NoName of the Wildlife SanctuaryLocation
1.MudumalaiNilgiris
2.Indira GandhiCoimbatore
3.SathyamangalamErode
4.Grizzled Giant SquirrelVirudhunagar
5.KalakadTirunelveli
S.NoName of the Bird SanctuaryLocation
1.Pulicat LakeTiruvallur
2.KanjirankulamRamanathapuram
3.VedanthangalKancheepuram
4.Koonthankulam-kadankulamTirunelveli
5.KaraivettiAriyalur

Question 7.
Write a paragraph on Tropical cyclonic rainfall in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

  1. Tropical cyclones are common during the North – East monsoon season. (October – December)
  2. Cyclone originating from Bay of Bengal bring heavy rainfall to the east coastal regions of Tamil Nadu.
  3. More than 50% of the state’s rainfall is received from tropical cyclones during this period amount of rainfall.
  4. East coastal regions receive 100 to 200 cms of rainfall.
  5. Central and North western parts receives 50 – 100 cm of rainfall.
  6. The cyclones some times disturb the cultivation of crops and cause severe damage to life and property.

Question 8.
How Tamil Nadu can be classified in to based on cyclone prone zone? Mention the areas of very high and high zone.
Answer:
Based on the cyclone hit areas that ares often hit by the tropical cyclone formed in Bay of Bengal during Northeast monsoon season. Tamil Nadu is classified into five zones. Namelys

Very high, high, medium, low and veiy low cyclone prone zone.

Areas:
Very high zone: Southern part of Chennai, Eastern part of Kanchipuram and Villupuram, North Eastern part of Cuddalore and Union territory of Puduchery.

High zone: Nagapattinam, Thiruvallur, Tiruvarur (except North Western part) Southern part of Tanjavur, Eastern part of Pudukottai, Cuddalore, Tiruvannamalai, North Eastern part of Vellore, Northern part of Chennai, North Western part to Kanchipuram and Middle portion of Villupuram.

Question 9.
How can we manage water scarcity? Suggest some methods of water conservation.
Answer:

  1. Tamil Nadu is water deficit state.
  2. To manage water deficit, rain water harvesting and water conservation methods have to be implemented strictly.

Methods of water conservation:

  1. Protect water conservation.
  2. Rational use of ground water.
  3. Renovation of traditional water source.
  4. Increasing forest cover.
  5. Recycling of water for other uses.
  6. Changing crop pattern.
  7. Flood management.
  8. Use of geo-thermal water.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
On the given map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.
Answer:
(a) (i) Boundaries of Tamil Nadu
(ii) Capital of Tamil Nadu and its District.

Districts: (i) Any two coastal districts on the east
(ii) Kanyakumari, Cape Comorin, Nilgiris, Vellore
(iii) Pulicate lake.

(b)

  1. Gulf of Mannar
  2. Palk Strait
  3. Palk Bay
  4. Pamban
  5. Rameswaram
  6. Coromandel coast
  7. Kaveri plains
  8. Dharmapuri
  9. Kollidam
  10. Mettur Dam

(c)

  1. Ooty
  2. Kodaikanal
  3. Doddabetta
  4. Mukurti lake
  5. Sathuragiri
  6. Perumalmalai
  7. Palani hills
  8. Javadhi hills
  9. Elagiri
  10. Point calimere
  11. Agathiyamalai

Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, History, Book, Solutions, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Guide, History, Chapter 2, The World Between Two World Wars,

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Heman Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Heman Cortes

Question 3.
Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 4.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 5.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 6.
Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd
(b) Smut
(c) Herzog
(d) Botha
Answer:
(a) Verwoerd

Question 7.
Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(b) Napoleonic Invasion

Question 8.
Name the President who made amendment to Monroe Doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America.
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ……………
  2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ……………
  3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in ……………
  4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as ……………
  5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May ……………
  6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for …………… years
  7. …………… were a military nation.
  8. Boers were also known as ……………

Answers:

  1. Ferdinand Lassalle
  2. Josef Goebbels
  3. 1927
  4. The Gestapo
  5. 1910
  6. 27
  7. Aztecs
  8. Afrikaners
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front.
(ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
(iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
(iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason (R): This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason (R): The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.
(a) Both A and R are right.
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the Following
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars 1
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
Answer:
In general, the various periods of violent repression led by the counter-revolutionary forces in any country is called as White terror. In Indo-China, when a large number of peasants revolted against the French government, . headed by the communists. It was crushed by the White terror. Many rebels were killed in this incident.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:
Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932. In this summit the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.

Question 3.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:
The president of the USA, Monroe declared that if any of the Europeans interfere anywhere in America, it would be equal to waging a war against the Americans. This threat frightened the European powers. By 1930, the whole of South America was free from European domination. This was called the Monroe Doctrine.

Question 4.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:
In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome. Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 5.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884-85.
Answer:
The Berlin colonial conference of 1884-85 put forward the idea that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.

Question 6.
How did Great Depression impact on Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The Great Depression had a deep impact on Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce, declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant, remained unchanged. In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.

Question 7.
Explain the reason for the Smuts-Herzog alliance.
Answer:
When the world economic depression affected South Africa very badly, Smuts believed that coalition Government was necessary to solve the economic problems of the country. Therefore, the South Africa party and the United party made an alliance in 1934. The alliance continued till 1939,

Question 8.
Define “Dollar Imperialism”.
Answer:
‘Dollar Imperialism’ is the term used to describe the policy of the USA in maintaining and dominating over distant lands through economic aid.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China

(a) Define the concept of decolonisation.
Answer:
Decolonisation is a process through which colonial powers transferred institutional and legal control over their colonies to indigenous nationalist government.

(b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China?
Answer:
Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.

(c) How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
Answer:
Communist ideas from mainland China helped in developing the spirit of anti-colonalism in Indo-china. Many became convinced that the considerable wealth of Ind-ochina was benefiting only the colonial power. This aroused the feeling of nationalism which resulted in violence. In 1916 there was a major anti-colonial revolt which was crushed brutally. There were also guerrilla activities in Tongking.

(d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
The mainstream political party in Indo-china was the Vietnam Nationalist Party. It was composed of the wealthy and middle-class sections of the population.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
Ho Chi Minh

(a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.

(b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
Answer:
In the Paris peace conference, he insisted the right for Vietnam independence. His articles on newspapers the Pamphlet, “French colonialism on Trial’’, made him popular as a Vietnam nationalist.

(c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
Answer:
In 1923, he went to Moscow and learnt revolutionary techniques. In 1925, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement.

(d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
League for Independence was called as Viet Minh in Indo-China.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 3.
Political developments in South America

(a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
Answer:
By 1830 the whole of South America was free from European domination.

(b) How many republics came into being from Central America?
Answer:
Five republics came into being from the Central America.

(c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
Answer:
The USA occupied Cuba in the year 1898.

(d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
Economic growth, urbanisation and industrial growth in countries like Argentina, Chile, Brazil, and Mexico helped consolidate the hold of middle class and the emergence of militant working class oganisations. At the same time American power and wealth came to dominate Central and South America. These factors made olgarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

VII. Answer in Detail

1. Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Answer:

  1. Germany’s defeat and humiliation at the end of the first world war causa! great shock to the German people.
  2. A group of seven men including Adolf Hitler met in Munich and founded the National Socialist German Worker’s party which was in short called as Nazi party.
  3. His attempt to capture Bavaria in 1923.
  4. His National Revolution on the outskirts of Munch took him to the prison.
  5. There he wrote his autobiography. Mein Kampf (My struggle) which contained his political ideas.
  6. In 1932, Presidential election, the communist party won but refused to collaborate with the social democratics.
  7. Thereafter, Hitler became chancellor in 1933, when Von Hindenburg as president.
  8. The Nazi state of Hitler, known as Third Reich brought an end to the parliamentary democracy.
  9. Hitler replaced the Weimar Republic flag by Swastika symbol of Nazi party.
  10. He declared all the other political parties except Nazi party as illegal.
  11. He expanded his army of brown shirt and Jack booted wearing men.
  12. He abolished trade unions, their leaders were arrested. Strikes become illegal, Labour Front was used by the state to control industry, State also controlled press, theatre, cinema, radio and over education.
  13. Hitler secret police, The Gestapo was formed and run by Himmler, and second in command was Heydrich, who concentrated on army camps.
  14. Hitler’s foreign policy aimed at restoring the armed strength of Germany.
  15. All the above circumstances helped the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39).
Answer:
(i) The decolonisation process started in India with the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905. The outbreak of the First world war in 1914 brought about rapid political and economic changes.
(ii) In 1919, the Government of India Act introduced Dyarchy that provided for elected provinical assemblies as well as for Indian ministers to hold certain portfolios under transferred subjects. The Indian National Congress rejected the arrangements under Dyarchy and decided to boycott the legislature.
(iii) The Government of British India provided incentives for the British iron and steel industry by guaranteeing purchasing contracts. But in case of indigenous industries, support was only in the form of providing ‘technical advice and education’ and the establishment of pioneer factories in new industries sponsored by the government.
(iv) The Government of British India also raised revenue tariffs in the Depression years to gain foreign currency earnings. Britain’s need for gold in the crisis years was met from the export of gold from India. By overvaluing Indian currency, the British made imports cheaper. The currency exchange policy pursued by the British government fuelled tensions between the colonial government and its subjects, and intensified the political agitation against British rule.
(v) The Great Depression shattered Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant remained intact. The great fall in prices prompted Indian nationalists to demand protection for internal economy. The 1930s saw the emergence of the Indian National Congress as a militant mass movement.

Question 3.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

  1. The two main political parties in South Africa were:
    • (a) The Unionist party which was mainly British and
    • (b) The south Africa party which had mainly Afrikaners (or) Boers.
  2. Botha was the first Prime Minister who belonged to the South African party ruled in co-operation with the British.
  3. But, the militant section of the South African party formed the National party under Herzog.
  4. In 1912, The African national Congress was formed by Nelson Mandela. But it was banned and he was put into prison for 27 years.
  5. In 1920 elections, the National Party won, with 44 seats..
  6. Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of Whites over the Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
  7. The South African party was led by smuts, secured 41 seats.
  8. In this moment, the Unionist party and the South African party merged together. Therefore Smuts gained majority over National party.
  9. In 1924 elections, National party won supported by the Labour Movement, (composed of white miners)
  10. The Act passed in 1924 prevented blacks from joining trade Unions. Native blacks suffered in Social, Political and Economic spheres.
  11. The Great Economic depression brought sufferings to South Africa, therefore, the South African party and the Nationalist party unite in 1934. This smuts-Herzog alliance lasted till 1939.
  12. Herzog resigned when the parliament decided infavour of second world war.
  13. Smuts continued as prime minister. When Herzog died, many from that party joined the nationalist.
  14. Therefore, in 1948, election Reunified National party won over United party.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Each student may be asked to write an assignment on how each sector and each section of population in the USA came to be affected by the Stock Market Crash in 1929.
Answer:
Agriculture sector: The prices of the agricultural crops dropped, so low that many farmers became bankrupt and lost their farms. Livestock was the main source of cash. Com was used to feed Cattle and Pigs. But nothing could help them.

Banking Sector: Confidence in the economy was shattered, Wall street and the banks were no longer seen as reliable. Many refused to put money into stocks. The Federal Reserve did not give aid to banks and small banks collapsed

Industrial sector: As the country’s economy worsened, local industries affected badly. Production went down. Factories closed. Workers remain unemployed. Almost 15 million people were out of work.

Political Sector: The depression affected politics badly people started disliking Herbert Hoover, the president and his type of laissez faire economics. People voted for Franklin Roosevelt. There was dangerous high U.S debt.

Question 2.
A group project work on Vietnam War is desirable. An album or pictures, portraying the air attacks of the US on Vietnam and the brave resistance put up by the Vietnamese may be prepared.
Answer:
Vietnam war: During the 1950’s and 1960’s the United states fought war to stop communism. Vietnam was a French colony since 1880. They fought for independence and won in 1954. The country was split into North Vietnam and South Vietnam. The United states helped south Vietnam with men and materials. The North Vietnam could control South Vietnam.

In 1969, Richard Nixon, became the president of Vietnam. He started bringing more soldiers into force U.S also increased bombing of North Vietnam. Later, in 1973, they agreed to a cease fire. North, South Vietnamese and U.S.A agreed to stop the war. U.S.A returned home. But communism was not stopped in Vietnam.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Timeline:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars 2

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World Between Two World Wars Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The …………… change the political conditions in several countries.
(a) Fascism
(b) Nazism
(c) Depression
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(c) Depression

Question 2.
The Greatest craze in America was
(a) Trade
(b) Gambling
(c) Share market
Answer:
(c) Share market

Question 3.
HO-Chi-Minh was greatly influenced by the …………… ideas, that he made him to return to Indo China.
(a) Mas-Tse-Tung
(b) Hitler
(c) Bismarck
(d) Tonking
Answer:
(a) Mas-Tse-Tung

Question 4.
The founder of the fascist party was
(a) Adolf Hitler
(b) Benito Mussolini
(c) Stalin
Answer:
(b) Benito Mussolini

Question 5
…………… became the first Caribbean country to throw off slavery and French Colonial control.
(a) Haiti
(b) Mayapan
(c) Portugal
(d) Lisbon
Answer:
(a) Haiti

Question 6
The great relief was provided to the workers by
(a) ILO
(b) Factory Act
(c) Charter of Labour
Answer:
(c) Charter of Labour

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 7.
The stock market crash took place in New York in the year:
(a) 1940
(b) 1939
(c) 1929
(d) 1909
Answer:
(c) 1929

Question 8
The Allied armies occupied the resources rich
(a) Rhineland
(b) Green land
(c) Sudentenland
Answer:
(a) Rhineland

Question 9.
In 1923, Hitler attempted to capture power in
(a) Munich
(b) Bavaria
(c) Leipzig
(d) Weimar
Answer:
(b) Bavaria

Question 10.
For some time Hitler was a
(a) Painter
(b) Teacher
(c) Tailor
Answer:
(a) Painter

Question 11.
About six million jews in Europe were killed and the Nazis termed it as:
(a) The final solution
(b) Concentraion camps
(c) Security
(d) Foreign policy
Answer:
(a) The final solution

Question 12.
The Allies were strengthened by the entry of
(a) Austria
(b) America
(c) Poland
Answer:
(b) America

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The unjust nature of the treaty of ………….. led to the rise of fascism in Italy and Germany.
  2. Hitler developed violent political base against …………..
  3. The Nazi state of Hitler was called as …………..
  4. The Social Democratic party played a major role in the formation of the ………….. republic.
  5. ………….. in his early days, worked as a cook in a London hotel and later lead a war against USA.
  6. The two independent Boer states were Transvaal and the …………..
  7. The Act of ………….. made it impossible for the blacks to acquire land in most of their country.
  8. The voting right to Blacks was abolished in the …………..
  9. The decrease in the value of a Country’s currency is called as …………..
  10. Countries in the ………….. agreed to convert paper money into fixed amount of gold.
  11. The secret police of Hitler was formed and run by …………..
  12. Mein Kampf means …………..
  13. A Spaniard named ………….. collapsed the Aztec empire.
  14. ………….. declared Brazil’s independence from Portugal.
  15. The doctrine of ………….. amended by Roosevelt authorised US intervention in Latin America.

Answers:

  1. Versailles
  2. Jews
  3. Third Reich
  4. Weimar
  5. Ho-Chi-Minh
  6. Orange Free States
  7. 1913
  8. Cape province
  9. devaluation
  10. gold standard
  11. Himmler
  12. My struggle
  13. Herman cortes
  14. Pedro I
  15. 1904
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The depression changed the political conditions in several countries.
(ii) Mussolini was an elementary school master initially and later became a political journalist with socialistic ideas.
(iii) During World War I, Hitler served the Italian army.
(iv) With the fall of Mussolini, the social democratic party was revived.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) Only (Hi) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Decolonisation process was quickened during the Inter-war period in India.
(ii) The Munroe Doctrine prevented Colonisation of Latin American countries by European powers.
(iii) The economic slump originated in USA in 1929 affected all the countries of
(iv) British setup the Union of South Africa, which was racist in nature.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (in) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) in 1930, Civil disobedience Movement evoked tremendous response in rural India.
(ii) The decision of Britain to involve Indians in the Second World War was a welcoming effect from the Congress Ministry.
(iii) The Ottawa Submit of 1931, helped the colonies to give preference to non-imperial goods.
(iv) Decolonisation process started in India with the introduction of Swadeshi movement in 1905.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 4.
(i) The American and French Revolutions provided inspirations to the Latin Americans.
(ii) Latin American nationalists fought not only with Spain and Portugal but also among each other.
(iii) U.S.A protected the South American republics from Europe.
(iv) U.S.A rejected its right to intervene in Cuban internal affairs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) aid (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After World War I, there was worldwide credit contraction and break down of the International system of exchange.
Reason (R): Many countries left the gold standard and followed devaluation of the currency.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In 1990, the ban on ANC was lifted and Mandela was freed.
Reason (R): Apartheid is based on the belief that the political equality of white and black in South Africa would mean Black rule.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Jews were removed from Government positions, deprived of citizenship and their establishments were attacked.
Reason (R): Hitler had developed violent political biases against Jews.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. ”
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Britain transmitted the effects of depression to its colonies. Reason (R): The great depression of 1929 favoured Britain trade and business.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not fhe correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Aztecs form Mexico conquered Maya country and ruled for nearly 200 years.
Reason (R): Spaniards, especially Hernan Cortes and Pizarro helped Aztecs to conquer Maya country.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.

V. Match the Followings

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars 3
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars 4
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Why did Fascism emerged in Italy and Germany?
Answer:

  1. The first world war gravely weakened the European powers. The trade and financial imbalances left by the war created instabilities throughout the world.
  2. The conflict between the working and ruling classes that controlled the government became intense. As a result of this Fascism emerged in Italy and Germany.

Question 2.
How did FDR tackle economic depression?
Answer:

  1. The policy formulated to tackle the economic depression by FDR was known as New Deal.
  2. It includes Relief, Recovery and Reforms.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 3.
What do you mean by Gold Standard?
Answer:
It is a monetary system where a country’s currency value is directly linked to gold. Countries in the Gold standard agreed to convert paper money into a fixed amount of gold.

Question 4.
What are the four pillars of fascism?
Answer:

  1. Charismatic Leadership
  2. Single party rule under a dictator
  3. Terror
  4. Economic control

Question 5.
Who were called as Boers?
Answer:
The descendants of original Dutch settlers of South Africa, also known as Afrikaners were called Boers. Their language is Afrikaans. The Boers hated those people whom they referred to as Uitlanders (foreigners).

Question 6.
How did Mussolini seize power?
Answer:

  1. On October 30, 1922, the fascists organized a march to Rome and showed their strength.
  2. The Government surrendered and the emperor Victor Emanuel III invited Mussolini to form the Government.
  3. The fascists seized power without bloodshed under the leadership of Mussolini.

Question 7.
What is meant by Good Neighbour policy.
Answer:
It was the policy of USA after 1933, put forward by Franklin Roosevelt, the president of America. According to the policy, USA would not intervene in the internal affairs of any state and would give economic and technical . assistance to Latin America.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 8.
How did Mussolini put an end to the conflict between the pope and King?
Answer:

  1. In 1929, Mussolini signed the Latern Treaty with the Pope.
  2. By this treaty Mussolini recognized the papacy of the Pope in the Vatican city and the Pope recognized the sovereigty of the King in Rome.
  3. Thus the 60 years conflict between Papacy and the Italian Government came to an end.

Question 9.
Define Oligarchy.
Answer:
Oligarchy can be defined as a small group of people having control of a country.

VII. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Fascist Party
(a) Who was the founder of the Fascist party?
Answer:
Benito Mussolini

(b) Write the slogans of Mussolini.
Answer:
“Believe, Obey, Fight” and “The More Force, The More Honour”.

(c) What were the aims of Fascism?
Answer:

  1. Exaltation of the state.
  2. Protection of private property.
  3. Spirited foreign policy.

(d) What was the motto of Fascism?
Answer:

  1. Everything within the state.
  2. Nothing against the state.
  3. Nothing outside the state.

Question 2.
Mussolini

(a) When did Mussolini joined the Fascist party?
Answer:
When the fascist party was founded in 1919, he immediately joined the . fascist party.

(b) What did Mussolini organise?
Answer:
Mussolini organise the Fascist March on Rome and showed his force and strength in October 1922.

(c) How was he called?
Answer:
He was called as Duce (the leader) by his followers.

(d) What was made the religion of Italy?
Answer:
The Roman Catholic faith was made the religion of Italy.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 3.
Hitler’s Aggressive policy

(a) Why did Hitler conquer territories?
Answer:
Hitler conquered territories to accommodate the growing population and to accumulate resources.

(b) How did he violated the Lacarno treaty of 1925?
Answer:
In 1936, he reoccupied Rhine Land by violating the Lacamo treaty of 1925.

(c) What did he demanded from Poland?
Answer:
Hitler demanded the right to construct a military road connecting East Prussia with Germany through Poland and also the surrender of Danzig.

(d) When did he declared war on Poland?
Answer:
Hitler declared war on Poland on 1st September 1939.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 4.
Social Democratic Party

(a) When and where was the social Democratic party founded?
Answer:
Social Democratic party was founded on 23rd May 1863 in Leipzig by Ferdinand Lassalle.

(b) Why did Bismarck out lawed this party from 1878 to 1890?
Answer:
The German superior group of people considered the very existence of the party is a threat to the Security and stability of the newly formed Reich. .

(c) What happened to the social democrats when the party was outlawed?
Answer:
The social democrats were arrested and sent to concentration camps.

(d) When was the party revived?
Answer:
With the fall of Hitler, in 1945 the social Democratic party was revived.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 5.
Boer War

(a) Who were called as Boers?
Answer:
The descendants of original Dutch settlers of South Africa, were called as Boers.

(b) With whom did the Boers fought with?
Answer:
Boers fought with British and the last started for three years 1899-1902. British won finally.

(c) What were the states annexed by the British?
Answer:
The British annexed the two Boer states, the Transvaal and Orange free state,

(d) What happened to the two states of Boers and two colonies of British?
Answer:
The four states formed into a union of South Africa in May 1910.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Narrate the emergence of Mussolini and his triumph.
Answer:

  1. After the treaty of Versailes, in 1919, Italian socialists proclaimed that they follow communism in Russia (Bolsheviks)
  2. As a powerful speaker, he supported the use of violence and broke with socialists when they opposed Italy’s entry into the war.
  3. In 1919, when Fascist party was founded, he joined it.
  4. Fascist raised in strength with support of ex-soldiers, Industrialists and youth.
  5. In 1922, he led a march to Rome and showed the king, his force and strength.
  6. Impressed by that, the king invited Mussolini to form the government.
  7. He advocated dictatorship, and radical authority called as Fascism.
  8. In 1924 elections, Fascist secured 65% of votes.
  9. When the fairness of the elections were questioned by Matteotti, a socialist leader, he was murdered and opposition party was banned.
  10. Assuming the title of Duce in 1926, he became the dictator.
  11. In 1929, he signed the Lateran treaty with pope and won over the Roman Catholic church by transferring the Vatican city as an Independent state.
  12. He passed law forbidding strikes and locks outs.
  13. In 1938, parliament was abolished and was replaced by a body representing the fascist party.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 2 The World Between Two World Wars

Question 2.
How did Hitler establish Nazi rule in Germany?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler:
He was born in 1889 in Austria. His father was a customs officer. He lost his parents from his earlyhood. So he went to Vienna for job and was a painter for sometime. During the First World War, he joined the army and fought bravely for which he was awarded the Iron cross.

Rise of Nazis party:
After the war, Hitler did not get any job. So he organized a group of men called the National socialists in 1919, which became the Nazist party.

Beer Hall Revolution:

  1. In 1923, he made attempt to capture power. It was known as “Beer Hall Revolution”. But he failed in his attempt.
  2. He was arrested for high treason and sentenced to five years imprisonment.
  3. While he was in prison he wrote a book called “Mein Kampf” (My struggle), which became the Bible of the Nazis.

Capture of power:
Under the inspiring leadership of Hitler, the Nazi party grew in power and number.

  1. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party became the 2nd largest group in the German parliament.
  2. In 1933, the Nazists became the largest party in the German parliament and Hitler became the Chancellor and Hindenburg as president.
  3. On the death of President Hindenburg, he made himself as President and Chancellor.
  4. He abolished the Weimar Republic and himself became a dictator.

Question 3.
How did the Munroe Doctrine protected the South American Republics?
Answer:

  1. When European kings wanted to help the king of Spain to crush the revolutionaries in the South America Colonies, America Interfered.
  2. The President of the USA, Munroe declared that if Europeans interfered anywhere in America, North or South, it is equal to wage a war against the United states.
  3. The threat of the president of USA frightened the European powers.
  4. By this, in 1830, the whole of South America was free from European domination.
  5. In 1898, after defeating the Spanish, USA occupied Cuba and Puerto Rico.
  6. USA retained its right to intervene in Cuban internal affairs.
  7. Later Roosevelt made an important amendment to the Munroe doctrine in 1904. It authorized U.S, Intervention in Latin America.
  8. Thus, the Munroe Doctrine protected the American continent from European affairs.

Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, History, Book, Solutions, Samacheer Kalvi, 10th, Social Science, Guide, History, Chapter 1, Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath,

Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

Question 2.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 3.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 4.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Leninhttps://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?guci=2.2.0.0.2.2.0.0&client=ca-pub-4620359738364721&output=html&h=300&adk=3873856006&adf=1189822837&pi=t.aa~a.4009054162~i.20~rp.4&w=360&lmt=1606295003&num_ads=1&rafmt=1&armr=3&sem=mc&pwprc=5392617452&psa=1&ad_type=text_image&format=360×300&url=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide-history-chapter-1%2F&flash=0&fwr=1&pra=3&rh=258&rw=309&rpe=1&resp_fmts=3&sfro=1&wgl=1&fa=27&adsid=ChEIgJ74_QUQtqyvrJmm56ilARIaAKH6zUZqmExIHYW6ipE2GJu8uDsENXLvsjs&tt_state=W3siaXNzdWVyT3JpZ2luIjoiaHR0cHM6Ly9hZHNlcnZpY2UuZ29vZ2xlLmNvbSIsInN0YXRlIjowfSx7Imlzc3Vlck9yaWdpbiI6Imh0dHBzOi8vYXR0ZXN0YXRpb24uYW5kcm9pZC5jb20iLCJzdGF0ZSI6MH1d&dt=1606295003063&bpp=29&bdt=3588&idt=-M&shv=r20201112&cbv=r20190131&ptt=9&saldr=aa&abxe=1&cookie=ID%3Dad21d1bcb86832b1-2272e38eb7c40028%3AT%3D1605341833%3ART%3D1605341833%3AS%3DALNI_Mamb4DQGyC4g7VDoKG_JUiUj3Sm-w&prev_fmts=0x0%2C360x300%2C360x300&nras=2&correlator=8307315563834&frm=20&pv=1&ga_vid=1194689825.1605341813&ga_sid=1606295001&ga_hid=1871724586&ga_fc=0&iag=0&icsg=176680090088384&dssz=32&mdo=0&mso=0&u_tz=330&u_his=2&u_java=0&u_h=780&u_w=360&u_ah=780&u_aw=360&u_cd=32&u_nplug=0&u_nmime=0&adx=0&ady=3003&biw=360&bih=610&scr_x=0&scr_y=432&eid=21066699%2C21066792%2C21066923%2C21066706%2C21066973&oid=3&pvsid=4215905301474739&pem=191&ref=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide%2F&rx=0&eae=0&fc=1408&brdim=0%2C0%2C0%2C0%2C360%2C0%2C360%2C660%2C360%2C660&vis=1&rsz=%7C%7Cs%7C&abl=NS&fu=8320&bc=29&jar=2020-11-25-08&ifi=3&uci=a!3&btvi=2&xpc=KunOaPoQJx&p=https%3A//samacheerkalvi.guide&dtd=348

Question 5.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare
(b) trench warfare
(c) submarine warfare
(d) ship warfare
Answer:
(b) trench warfare

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 6.
Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 7.
To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belongs?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britainhttps://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?guci=2.2.0.0.2.2.0.0&client=ca-pub-4620359738364721&output=html&h=300&adk=3873856006&adf=568963313&pi=t.aa~a.4009054162~i.28~rp.4&w=360&lmt=1606295003&num_ads=1&rafmt=1&armr=3&sem=mc&pwprc=5392617452&psa=1&ad_type=text_image&format=360×300&url=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide-history-chapter-1%2F&flash=0&fwr=1&pra=3&rh=258&rw=309&rpe=1&resp_fmts=3&sfro=1&wgl=1&fa=27&adsid=ChEIgJ74_QUQtqyvrJmm56ilARIaAKH6zUZqmExIHYW6ipE2GJu8uDsENXLvsjs&tt_state=W3siaXNzdWVyT3JpZ2luIjoiaHR0cHM6Ly9hZHNlcnZpY2UuZ29vZ2xlLmNvbSIsInN0YXRlIjowfSx7Imlzc3Vlck9yaWdpbiI6Imh0dHBzOi8vYXR0ZXN0YXRpb24uYW5kcm9pZC5jb20iLCJzdGF0ZSI6MH1d&dt=1606295003063&bpp=34&bdt=3588&idt=35&shv=r20201112&cbv=r20190131&ptt=9&saldr=aa&abxe=1&cookie=ID%3Dad21d1bcb86832b1-2272e38eb7c40028%3AT%3D1605341833%3ART%3D1605341833%3AS%3DALNI_Mamb4DQGyC4g7VDoKG_JUiUj3Sm-w&prev_fmts=0x0%2C360x300%2C360x300%2C360x300&nras=3&correlator=8307315563834&frm=20&pv=1&ga_vid=1194689825.1605341813&ga_sid=1606295001&ga_hid=1871724586&ga_fc=0&iag=0&icsg=176680090088384&dssz=32&mdo=0&mso=0&u_tz=330&u_his=2&u_java=0&u_h=780&u_w=360&u_ah=780&u_aw=360&u_cd=32&u_nplug=0&u_nmime=0&adx=0&ady=4248&biw=360&bih=610&scr_x=0&scr_y=432&eid=21066699%2C21066792%2C21066923%2C21066706%2C21066973&oid=3&pvsid=4215905301474739&pem=191&ref=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide%2F&rx=0&eae=0&fc=1408&brdim=0%2C0%2C0%2C0%2C360%2C0%2C360%2C660%2C360%2C660&vis=1&rsz=%7C%7Cs%7C&abl=NS&fu=8320&bc=29&jar=2020-11-25-08&ifi=4&uci=a!4&btvi=3&xpc=JnnQKAReq9&p=https%3A//samacheerkalvi.guide&dtd=364

Question 8.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. Japan forced a war on China in the year ……………….
  2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ………………. signed in May 1913.
  3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ……………….
  4. In the Balkans ………………. had mixed population.
  5. In the battle of Tannenberg ………………. suffered heavy losses.
  6. ………………. as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
  7. ………………. became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
  8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ………………..

Answers:

  1. 1894
  2. London
  3. 1902
  4. Macedonia
  5. Russia
  6. Clemenceau
  7. Kerensky
  8. 1925
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
(ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
(iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
(iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason (R): Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason (R): There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correcthttps://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?guci=2.2.0.0.2.2.0.0&client=ca-pub-4620359738364721&output=html&h=300&adk=3873856006&adf=3662937915&pi=t.aa~a.4009054162~i.54~rp.4&w=360&lmt=1606295136&num_ads=1&rafmt=1&armr=3&sem=mc&pwprc=5392617452&psa=1&ad_type=text_image&format=360×300&url=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide-history-chapter-1%2F&flash=0&fwr=1&pra=3&rh=258&rw=309&rpe=1&resp_fmts=3&sfro=1&wgl=1&fa=27&adsid=ChEIgJ74_QUQtqyvrJmm56ilARIaAKH6zUZqmExIHYW6ipE2GJu8uDsENXLvsjs&tt_state=W3siaXNzdWVyT3JpZ2luIjoiaHR0cHM6Ly9hZHNlcnZpY2UuZ29vZ2xlLmNvbSIsInN0YXRlIjowfSx7Imlzc3Vlck9yaWdpbiI6Imh0dHBzOi8vYXR0ZXN0YXRpb24uYW5kcm9pZC5jb20iLCJzdGF0ZSI6MH1d&dt=1606295003138&bpp=37&bdt=3663&idt=38&shv=r20201112&cbv=r20190131&ptt=9&saldr=aa&abxe=1&cookie=ID%3Dad21d1bcb86832b1-2272e38eb7c40028%3AT%3D1605341833%3ART%3D1605341833%3AS%3DALNI_Mamb4DQGyC4g7VDoKG_JUiUj3Sm-w&prev_fmts=0x0%2C360x300%2C360x300%2C360x300%2C360x300%2C360x90_as%2C360x788&nras=6&correlator=8307315563834&frm=20&pv=1&ga_vid=1194689825.1605341813&ga_sid=1606295001&ga_hid=1871724586&ga_fc=0&iag=0&icsg=2760626549696&dssz=29&mdo=0&mso=0&u_tz=330&u_his=2&u_java=0&u_h=780&u_w=360&u_ah=780&u_aw=360&u_cd=32&u_nplug=0&u_nmime=0&adx=0&ady=7356&biw=360&bih=610&scr_x=0&scr_y=2737&eid=21066699%2C21066792%2C21066923%2C21066706%2C21066973&oid=3&psts=AGkb-H-9beB3kdDfFNgljMY4zw2x8XIYIYo6vXDyLEiv9HrmqOCW8-O9XKeOEiU5xQ%2CAGkb-H9Zw3qcp-u6iE6eV6-3xlFVpAst7GbC6SXL6o_QHwbcRnhPEVGOjqIpss9zBDg%2CAGkb-H9h24znhdo5nK5Y7H114BwkuKs8B3LBzLrm81ILLV4EULvz6saNjd0hcSRSfqeBoIbLp-dHpq5OrGGIeAV_3A%2CAGkb-H_vEXUPK9Kx5PQcGnEYi-gNDvOHLrxNZopRkpKqe1wFyy2DTDZfosM&pvsid=4215905301474739&pem=191&ref=https%3A%2F%2Fsamacheerkalvi.guide%2Fsamacheer-kalvi-10th-social-science-guide%2F&rx=0&eae=0&fc=1408&brdim=0%2C0%2C0%2C0%2C360%2C0%2C360%2C660%2C360%2C660&vis=1&rsz=%7C%7Cs%7C&abl=NS&fu=8320&bc=29&jar=2020-11-25-08&ifi=5&uci=a!5&btvi=6&xpc=31Llxuq9I5&p=https%3A//samacheerkalvi.guide&dtd=M

IV. Match the following
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 8
Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
How do you assess the importance of Sino-Japanese War?
Answer:
Sino-Japanese war took place in the years 1894 – 1895. China was defeated in the war. Japan annexed the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur inspite of warning given by three great powers, Russia, Germany and France. By this Japan had proved that it was the strongest nation of the East – Asia.

Question 2.
Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Answer:
Britain, France and Russia.

Question 3.
What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
Answer:
The three militant forms of nationalism were, England’s Jingoism, France’s Chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 4.
What do you know of trench warfare?
Answer:
Trench warfare is a type of land warfare using occupied fighting lines consisting largely of military trenches, in which troops are well-protected from the enemy’s small arms fire and are substantially sheltered from artillery. It is a warfare in which opposing armed forces attack, counterattack, and defend from relatively permanent systems of trenches dug in the ground.

Question 5.
What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Answer:
When Britian attacked Turkey directly and tried to capture Constantinople, Turks put up a brave fight and Mustafa Kemal Pasha played a great role to win freedom for the country. He put an end to the sultanate and caliphate. He modernized it and changed it out for recognition.

Question 6.
Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution fired people’s imagination across the world. In many countries, communist parties were formed. The Russian communist government encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom and gave all support to them. Debates over key issues, land reforms, social welfare, workers’ rights, and gender equality taking place in a global context.

Question 7.
List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
League did not had the military power of its own , it could not enforce its decisions. Even though, it had world wide membership it become very much the center of European diplomacy.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Imperialism
(a) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
(b) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
(c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
(d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
(a) Capitalism based on the principle of free -trade without any control or regulation by the state is called monopoly Capitalism.
(b) Japan emerged as an imperial power by annexing the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur inspite of warning given by Russia, Germany and France.
(c) Because colonies acted as a market for surplus goods and vast supplies of raw materials.
(d) Capitalism produced extreme poverty and extreme wealth. Slum and skyscraper. Empire state and dependent exploited colony.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 2.
German Emperor

(a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
Answer:
Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.

(b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
Answer:
It was called Germany’s Kultur.

(c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
Answer:
The British agreement with France over the latter’s interest in Morocco was consented by Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany intentionally recognised the independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to decide on the future of Morocco.

(d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were attacked by the Allies. As these colonies were quite far off from Germany they could not receive any immediate help, and therefore had to surrender to the Allies.

Question 3.
Balkan Wars
(a) Why was Balkan League formed?
(b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
(c) Who were defeated in this war?
(d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
(a) To control Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro in succeeding Balkans from Turks, in March 1912 the Balkan League was formed.
(b) The Balkan League defeated the Turkish forces in the 1st Balkan war.
(c) Turkey and Bulgaria were defeated in this war.
(d) Treaty of Bucharest in August 1913.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:
The causes of the First World War are given below:

  1. Formation of European alliances and counter alliances
  2. Emergence of violent forms of nationalism in countries like England, France and Germany
  3. Aggressive attitude of the German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II
  4. Hostility of France towards Germany
  5. Opportunity for imperial power politics in the Balkans
  6. The Balkans wars
  7. Immediate cause which included the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, nephew and heir to Franz Joseph, Emperor of Austria-Hungary, by Princip, a Bosnian Serb, on 28 June 1914.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 2.
Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

  1. All the central powers were directed to pay war indemnity especially Germany was to pay heavy amount for the losses suffered.
  2. Germany had to pay 6,600 million pounds as per the Reparation Commission, but can be paid in installments.
  3. The Germans should not have submarines and airforce, but can have a small navy and an army of one lakh men.
  4. Austria and Germany separated and Austria was given independence.
  5. All German colonies came under the mandated territories of League of nations.
  6. Germany had to give up all her overseas possessions, rights and titles to the allies.
  7. Germany surrendered Alsace-Lorraine to France.
  8. She signed the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk with Russia and the treaty of Bucharest with Bulgaria.
  9. Rhineland was to be occupied by the allies. East of Rhineland area was to be demilitarised.
  10. Poland was recreated with a corridor to Baltic containing the port of Danzig of Germany.

Question 3.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

  1. Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out in Russia. He wanted to continued revolution.
  2. His slogan of “All power to the Soviets” soon won over the workers’ leaders. Devastated by war time shortages, the people were attracted by the slogan of ‘Bread, Peace and Land’.
  3. In October Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on immediate revolution. Trotsky prepared a detailed plan
  4. On 7 November the key government buildings, including the Winter Palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters, were seized by armed factory workers and revolutionary troops
  5. On 8 November 1917a new Communist government was in office in Russia. Its head this time was Lenin. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 4.
Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
Answer:

  1. League of nations was formed in 1920 with the twin objective of avoiding war and to maintain peace in the world.
  2. The main work done by the League was to solve the dispute arose between Sweden and Finland over the sovereignity of Aaland Island. It ruled that the island should go to Finland.
  3. League solved the frontier dispute between Poland and Germany in upper Silesia.
  4. When dispute arose between Greece and Bulgaria in 1925, Greece invaded Bulgaria and the League ordered a ceasefire.
  5. League had been successful in signing the Locarno Treaty in 1925 by which Germany,France, Belgium, Great Britain and Italy mutually guaranteed peace in Western Europe.
  6. The main reason for the failure of the League was Italy, Japan and Germany headed by dictators refused to be bound by the orders of the League and started violation and League rules.
  7. When League condemned the violation, they withdrew their membership.
  8. League did not had a military power of its own.
  9. Though it had a world-wide membership, it became the center of European diplomacy.
  10. The League remained a passive witness to events, issues and incidents of violations therefore finally dissolved in 1946.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to mark the places of battles and the capital cities of the countries that were engaged in the War.
Answer:
(a) Battles of I World war:
(i) Battle of Tannenberg
(ii) Battle of Marne
(iii) Battle of Gallipoli
(iv) Battle of Jutland
(v) Battle of Verdun
(vi) Battle of Passchendaele
(vii) Battle of Caporetto
(viii) Battle of Cambrai
(ix) Battle of the Somme.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 2

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

(b) Capital cities of countries engaged in the IWW.
Central powers & Capital:
(i) Germany – Berlin
(ii) Austria – Vienna
(iii) Hungary – Budapest
(iv) Italy – Rome
(v) Ottoman Empire – Istanbul, Bursa, Edirne, Sogut
(vi) Bulgaria – Sofia
(vii) Tu rkey – An ka ra
Allies- Capital:
(i) Great Britain – London
(ii) France – Paris
(iii) Russia – Moscow
(iv) Italy – Rome
(v) United States – Washington D. C
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 3

Question 2.
An assignment or a project work on the role of Indian soldiers in different battle fields across the globe and the casualties they suffered during the War be attempted by the students.
Answer:
During the War, the Indian Army contributed a large number of divisions and independent brigades to the European, Mediterranean and the Middle East. The Indian Army fought against the German Empire in German East Africa and on the Western Front. Indian divisions were also sent to Egypt, Gallipoli and nearly 700,000 served in Mesopotamia against the Ottoman Empire. While some divisions were sent overseas others had to remain in India guarding the North West Frontier and on internal security and training duties.

In addition to the permanent divisions, the Indian Army also formed a number of independent brigades. As part of the Southern Army the Aden Brigade was stationed in the Aden Protectorate on the strategically important naval route from Europe to India, where there was limited fighting.

The Bannu Brigade, the Derajat Brigade and the Kohat Brigade were all part of the Northern Army and they were deployed along the North West Frontier. The South Persia Brigade was formed in 1915 at the start of the Persian Campaign to protect the Anglo- Persian oil installations in south Persia and the Persian Gulf.

On the outbreak of war, the Indian Army had 150,000 trained men and the Indian Government offered the services of two cavalry and two infantry divisions for service overseas. The force known as Indian Expeditionary Force A was attached to the British Expeditionary Force and the four divisions were formed into two army corps: an infantry Indian Corps and the Indian Cavalry Corps.

Indian Expeditionary Force B consisted of the 27th (Bangalore) Brigade from the 9th (Secunderabad) Division and an Imperial Service Infantry Brigade, a pioneer battalion, a mountain artillery battery and engineers were sent to Tanganyika with the task of invading German East Africa. Force C was formed from the Indian Army’s 29th Punjabis, together with half battalions from the Princely states of Jind, Bharatpur, Kapurthala and Rampur. The largest Indian Army force to serve abroad was the Indian Expeditionary Force D in Mesopotamia, under the command of Lieutenant-General Sir John Nixon.

Over one million Indian troops served overseas, of whom 62,000 died and another 67,000 were wounded. In total at least 74,187 Indian soldiers died during the War. Field-Marshal Sir Claude Auchinleck, Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from 1942, commented that the British “couldn’t have come through both wars [World War I and II] if they hadn’t had the Indian Army.”

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

IX. Map Work

Mark the following countries on the world map.

  1. Great Britain
  2. Germany
  3. France
  4. Italy
  5. Morocco
  6. Turkey
  7. Serbia
  8. Bosnia
  9. Greece
  10. Austria-Hungary
  11. Bulgaria
  12. Rumania
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 5

Timeline:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 1

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Treaty of serves was signed with:
(a) Austria
(b) Hungary
(c) Turkey
(d) Bulgaria
Answer:
(c) Turkey

Question 2.
The policy of imperialism followed by the European countries from 1870-1945 was known as ……
(a) New imperialism
(b) Military imperialism
(c) Neo-imperialism
Answer:
(a) New imperialism

Question 3.
President Woodrow Wilson put forward ………….. points in the League of nations.
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(d) 14

Question 4.
With a modem army and navy, ….. had emerged as an advanced industrialised
power.
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Italy
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 5.
Germany surrendered in:
(a) 1917
(b) 1918
(c) 1919
(d) 1916
Answer:
(b) 1918

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 6.
The ‘Sphere of influence’ was adopted by the European countries in ……
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7
………….. is the name of the parliament of Russia.
(a) Tsar
(b) Trotsky
(c) Duma
(d) Rasputin.
Answer:
(c) Duma

Question 8.
The word “Imperialism” is derived from ……
(a) Greek
(b) German
(c) Latin
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 9.
Nicholas II abdicated from his throne on ……………. 1917.
(a) March 12
(b) March 15
(c) November 18
(d) October 14
Answer:
(b) March 15

Question 10.
The development of ……. speeded the movements of goods between colonies and other countries.
(a) Roadways
(b) Waterways
(c) Railways
Answer:
(c) Railways

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The biggest outcome of the first world war was the …………….
  2. The Trust is an industrial organisation in the …………….
  3. The Imperialist Prime Minister of South Africa was called …………….
  4. Cartel means ……………. of enterprises in the same field of business.
  5. The treaty of ……………. was signed after the Russo-Japanese war and Japan got back port Arthur.
  6. The violent form of nationalism in Germany was called as …………….
  7. France and Germany were old …………….
  8. The enemity between and led to the outbreak of war in 1914.
  9. The new state of Albania was created according to the treaty of ……………. signed in 1913.
  10. Russia suffered heavy loses in the battle of …………….
  11. Trench warfare was the style followed in the battle of …………….
  12. Russia signed the treaty of ……………. with Germany.
  13. Italy formally joined the allies in …………….
  14. Battle of Jutland is a ……………. battle.
  15. ……………. is the name of the American ship sunk by Germany.
  16. ……………. was one of the principle in the fourteen points of Paris peace conference.
  17. The war conditions led to the ……………. movement in India.
  18. ……………. modernised Turkey and changed it out of all recognition.
  19. £ is the symbol of …………….
  20. The Bolshevik party was renamed as ……………. party.

Answers:

  1. Russian Revolution
  2. USA
  3. Cecil Rhodes
  4. Association
  5. Portsmouth
  6. Kultur
  7. Rivals
  8. Austria and Serbia
  9. London
  10. Tannenburg
  11. Marne
  12. Brest Litovsk
  13. 1916
  14. Naval
  15. Lusitania
  16. Self determination
  17. Home Rule
  18. Pound sterling
  19. Kemal Pasha
  20. Russian communist
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

III. Choose the correct statements.

Question 1.
(i) The Industrial achievements of Germany in the later half of the 19th Century gave her a dominating position in Europe.
(ii) When Germany came to the scene of exploitation, it became weak in its military power.
(iii) When there was nowhere else to expand, imperialist countries grab other’s possession.
(iv) Russia, Britain and France joined in the scramble for colonies.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are wrong
(c) (ii) and (iv) are wrong
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are wrong

Question 2.
(i) The Central powers consisted of Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey and Bulgaria.
(ii) Italy strongly supported Germany.
(iii) In April 1916, Britain, France and Italy signed the Treaty of London.
(iv) Italy agreed to enter the war against the central powers in-return of this territory after the war.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Trenches are ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers.
(ii) It was done to protect themselves from enemy fire.
(iii) The battle of Jutland is a memorable one for Trench war fare.
(iv) Trench system used in the first world war consisted of six to seven trench lines running parallel to each other.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The main provision of the Versailles treaty was that all central powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
(ii) All the German colonies became mandated territories under the League of nations.
(iii) The Saar coal mine was given to Bulgaria.
(iv) Northern Schleswig was given to France.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 5.
(i) Triple Alliance was signed in 1882 between Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.
(ii) Entente cordiale was signed in 1906 between Britain and Russia.
(iii) Triple Entente was signed between Britain, France and Russia.
(iv) The Britain violation of Belgian neutrality forced German to enter the war.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Inspite of warning of the three great powers, Russia, Germany and France, Japan annexed the Liaotung Peninsula with Port Arthur.
Reason (R): Japan proved that it was the strongest nation of the East Asia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Two peace conferences were held at the Hague in Holland in 1899 and in 1907.
Reason (R): Lenin of Russia wanted to bring Universal peace and suggested these conferences.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Italy formally joined with the allies fighting with Austria, initially sustained, but finally collapsed.
Reason (R): Germans came to Austria’s help.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): In Germany and Austria, women and children suffered from hunger and privation.
Reason (R): Aeroplanes were used for bombing targeted Civilian population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Marxists in Russia had the fortune of getting Lenin as their leader.
Reason (R): Tsar Nicholas li was under the strong influence of his wife Alexandra.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The League of nations could apply the principle of collective security.
Reason (R): It was supported by Italy, Japan and Germany.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevant to A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 6
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath 7
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What was the aim of the capitalist countries?
Answer:
The aim of the capitalistic countries was to produce more and more. The surplus wealth that was produced was used to build more factories, railways, steamship and other such undertakings.

Question 2.
What is colonialism?
Answer:
(i) Colonialism refers to the policy of acquiring and maintaining colonies especially for exploitation.
(ii) It also means that it is a relationship between an indigenous majority and a minority foreign invaders.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause of the first world war?
Answer:
The nephew and heir to Franz Joseph, Emperor of Austria-Hungary. The Arch duke Franz Ferdinand was killed by Princip a Serbian of Bosnia. This was the immediate cause as Austria got help from Germany and Serbia got help from Russia. Thus the war began in 1914.

Question 4.
How did China became an International colony?
Answer:

  1. The Boers were defeated by foreign powers.
  2. When they reached Peking, the capital of China, Empress Dowager fled from the capital,
  3. The U.S.A. and England formulated the Open Door Policy or Me Too Policy.
  4. The Chinese territories were partitioned among the foreign powers for trade rights. Thus China became an international colony.

Question 5.
What do you understand by Paris peace conference?
Answer:
The Paris peace conference held in January 1919 two months after the signing of the armistice.
Woodrow Wilson of America and Lloyd George of Britain were the important personalities. On 28 June 1919, the peace treaty was signed in The Hall of Mirrors at Versailles.

Question 6.
What was the immediate cause of the First World War?
Answer:

  1. In 1908, Austria annexed Bosnia and Herzegovina against the Congress of Berlin.
  2. Austrian Prince Francis Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated at Sarajevo on June 28, 1914.
  3. Austria sent an ultimatum to Serbia, but Serbia ignored it.
  4. So Austria declared war on Serbia on 28th July 1914.

Question 7.
Write the slogans raised by Lenin that attracted soviet people.
Answer:
“All power to the soviets” and “Bread, Peace and Land” were the slogans raised by Lenin that attracted the soviet people who were devastated by war time shortages.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

Question 8.
Write any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles.
Answer:

  1. A huge war indemnity was imposed on Germany. Her army was reduced.
  2. The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.

Question 9.
Write any two objectives of the League.
Answer:
The two main objective of the League of Nations was (i) To avoid war and to maintain peace in the world, (ii) To promote international co-operation in economic and social affairs.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The fall of monarch in February 1917 and the events of October are known as the Russian Revolution.

Question 11.
What is Duma? Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
Answer:
An elective legislative assembly established in 1905 by Nicholas II in Russia is known as Duma. Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority, so he dismissed the first Duma within 75 days.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

1. Characteristics of Imperialism

(a) What led to concept of Imperialism?
Answer:
Capitalism inevitably led to the concept of Imperialism.

(b) What was Lenin idea on Imperialism?
Answer:
According to Lenin, imperialism is the highest stage of Capitalism.

(c) What were the purposes for which the colonies were made use of?
Answer:
The colonies served as a market for goods and also vast suppliers of raw materials like cotton, Rubber etc.

(d) What was the logic behind Imperialism apart from colonisation?
Answer:
The logic behind Imperialism apart from colonisation was, total militarisation and total war.

2. The ambition of Germany

(а) Who was the ruler of Germany during the First World War?
Answer:
Kaiser Wilhelm II.

(b) What did he believe?
Answer:
He believed that Germany alone was competent to rule the whole world.

(c) What could not be tolerated by him?
Answer:
He could not tolerate the British saying that the Sun never sets in the British Empire.

3. Naval Battles

(a) Name the Naval battle that took place in 1916?
Answer:
In 1916, the Naval battle had taken place in the North sea called as Battle of Jutland.

(b) Which country started the Sub-marine warfare thereafter?
Answer:
Germany started their Submarine warfare thereafter.

(c) Name the ship that bombarded Madras?
Answer:
The ship that bombarded Madras was the famous Emden ship.

(d) Name the American ship torpedoed by a German Submarine.
Answer:
Lusitania, an American ship was torpedoed by a German Submarine.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

4. Course of the First World War

(a) Give the duration of the First World War.
Answer:
From July 28, 1914 to November 11, 1918.

(b) Who were called the Central Powers?
Answer:
The countries which were on the side of Germany were called the Central Powers.

(c) Who were called the Allies?
Answer:
The countries which were on the side of Britain were called as the Allies.

(d) What and all were used in war?
Answer:
Artillery, Tanks and submarines were used in the war.

5. Lenin

(a) Where was he born?
Answer:
Lenin was bom in 1870 near the middle Volga to educated parents.

(b) What was his belief?
Answer:
Lenin believed that the wav for freedom was through mass action.

(c) When and why was he arrested?
Answer:
He was arrested in 1895 and kept in Serbia for encouraging the ideas of Marxism to the factory workers in St. Petersburg.

(d) How did he form the Bolshevik party?
Answer:
Lenin gained the support of small majority called Bolshmstvo known as Bolsheviks which later became the Bolshevik party.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

6. Results of the war

(a) How were the terms of the treaties drafted?
Answer:
Based upon the fourteen points of the American President Woodrow Wilson.

(b) What did Germany surrendered to France?
Answer:
Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to Europe.

(c) Where was monarchy abolished?
Answer:
In Germany, Russia, Austria and Turkey.

(d) Name the new Republics.
Answer:
Czechoslovakia and Poland.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

VIII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the structure and composition of its League of Nations.
Answer:

  1. The covenant of the League of Nations was formed at the Paris peace conference after the first world war.
  2. President of USA -Woodrow Wilson largely supported for this task to be accomplished.
  3. The structure of the League consist of the Assembly, the council, the Secretariat, the permanent court of Justice and the International Labour organization.
  4. Each member country was represented in the Assembly.
  5. Each member country’ and had one vote and also possessed the right of veto.
  6. Britain, France, Italy, Japan and United States were originally declared permanent members of the council.
  7. The council was the executive of the League.
  8. The staff of the secretariat was appointed by the Secretary General in consultation with the council.
  9. The court of Justice consisted of fifteen Judges.
  10. The International Labour organization comprised a Secretariat. The general conference will include four representatives from each country.
  11. The first secretary general of League of Nations was Sir Eric Drummond from Britain.

Question 2.
What were the results of the first world war?
Answer:
The Paris Peace Conference:

  1. The first world war came to an end by the Paris Peace Conference of 1919.
  2. The city of Danzig was internationlized.
  3. Lithuvania, Latvia and Estonia were granted independence.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

The formation of the League of Nations:

  1. The first world war brought untold miseries to people.
  2. All the nations wanted a permanent body to maintain peace in the world. So the League of Nations was formed in 1920.
  3. The victorious nations forced the defeated nations with unfair treaties. It sowed the seed for the second world war.

Question 3.
What was the impact of First world war on India?
Answer:

  1. The first world war had multiple effects on the Indian economy, society and politics.
  2. Indians had taken an active part in the war on the side of Britain, believing that they would reward Independence after the war.
  3. But also, disappointment was rewarded to the Indians.
  4. Indian soldiers asked to serve in Europe, Africa and West Asia.
  5. India contributed £230 million in cash and over £125 million in loan towards war expenses.
  6. India also sent war materials to the value of £ 250 million .
  7. There were economic distress all over the country.
  8. Towards the end of the war, India suffered under the world wide epidemic of influenza.
  9. Home Rule Movement arose in India due to the war conditions.
  10. The congress split of extremists and moderates reunited.
  11. The Ottoman Empire under the Turkish Sultan was defeated in World war I and the territories shared between Britain and France.
  12. This led to the formation of Khilafat Movement in India.

Book,Keeping, and, Accountancy, board,exam, paper, March, 2019, Maharashtra, board.

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